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ENetwork Chapter 7 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – ENetwork Chapter 7 – CCNA Exploration: Network Fundamentals (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

Thứ Hai, 10 tháng 9, 2012

1. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)

non-deterministicless overheadone station transmits at a time
collisions existdevices must wait their turn
token passing
2. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
facilitate the entry and exit of data on mediaidentify the services to which transported data is associated
3.
6632342123 19c923f914 z ENetwork Chapter 7 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?

1
2
4
816
4. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.
5.
6632339919 2bf6f729a5 z ENetwork Chapter 7 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for http://www.server?

00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
00-0c-85-cf-65-c000-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af
6. What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
They are 48 binary bits in length.They are considered physical addresses.They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.
7.
6632336919 a87c7b7e3a z ENetwork Chapter 7 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)

source MAC – PC
source MAC – S0/0 on RouterA
source MAC – Fa0/1 on RouterBsource IP – PCsource IP – S0/0 on RouterA
source IP – Fa0/1 of RouterB
8. What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
network layer addressing
media sharingapplication processes
logical topologyintermediary device function
9. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros
10. What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network cardLayer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing schemeLayer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data
11. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.
12. Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
LLC
MACHDLC
NIC
13. What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CDdefined as placement of data frames on the mediacontention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to differen mediacontrolled access contains data collisions
14. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
The media access control protocol can be very simple.The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.
15. What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.
16. What is a function of the data link layer?
provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
provides for the exchange data over a common local media
17. Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
the Layer 3 protocol selected
the geographic scope of the networkthe PDU defined by the transport layer
the physical layer implementationthe number of hosts to be interconnected
18. What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
define the logical topology
provide media access control
support frame error detectioncarry routing information for the frame
19. A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
logical topology
physical topologycable path
wiring grid
access topology
20.
6632334831 f09f255f9e z ENetwork Chapter 7 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.
Read more ...

ENetwork Chapter 4 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – ENetwork Chapter 4 – CCNA Exploration: Network Fundamentals (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

Thứ Hai, 10 tháng 9, 2012

1.

6625043811 2865a3ea9c z ENetwork Chapter 4 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

The local host is using three client sessions.The local host is using web sessions to a remote server.The local host is listening for TCP connections using public addresses.
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
The local host is performing the three-way handshake with 192.168.1.101:1037.
2. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
801024
1728
3. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
source and destination
4. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
minimal delays in data deliveryhigh reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery
5.
6625052447 5e030d7bdd z ENetwork Chapter 4 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?

create a Layer 1 jam signal
reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledgedsend a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header
6.
6625054245 a892c8b204 z ENetwork Chapter 4 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?

session establishmentsegment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect
7.
6625062923 efc487d282 z ENetwork Chapter 4 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?

2
3
6
1850
34313475
8. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming datato synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts
9. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.
10. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
0 to 10231024 to 2047
49153 to 65535
11. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
UDPHTTP
DNS
12. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
flow control
low overheadconnectionlessconnection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements
13. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
window sizeacknowledgments
14. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
source port
15. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate applicationto allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
16. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
identifies the communicating applicationsidentifies multiple conversations between the hostsidentifies the devices communicating over the local media
17. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
encapsulation
flow controlconnectionless services
session establishmentnumbering and sequencingbest effort delivery
18. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
transportnetwork
19.
6625065553 052ee498f4 z ENetwork Chapter 4 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)

This is a UDP header.
This contains a Telnet request.This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
This is a TCP header.
20. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.
21.
6625073395 f67fc0acb3 z ENetwork Chapter 4 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?

Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host2.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Read more ...

ENetwork Chapter 2 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – ENetwork Chapter 2 – CCNA Exploration: Network Fundamentals (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

Thứ Hai, 10 tháng 9, 2012

1. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)

determine pathways for datainitiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signalsoriginate the flow of data
manage data flowsfinal termination point for data flow
2. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
define the structure of layer specific PDU’sdictate how to accomplish layer functions
outline the functions necessary for communications between layerslimit the need for hardware compatibility
require layer dependent encapsulationseliminate standardization among vendors
3. What are two functions of encapsulation? (Choose two.)
tracks delay between end devices
enables consistent network paths for communication
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communicationensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
4. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
supports error detectionensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
5. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network
Transport
PhysicalData LinkSession
6. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
a layer specific encapsulation
7. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
originate data flowretime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data
8.
6625003097 bfc1f0478d z ENetwork Chapter 2 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Refer to the exhibit. “Cell A” at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with “IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device “Cell A?”

the destination device
an end devicean intermediate device
a media device
9.
6625000495 a7035c34ea z ENetwork Chapter 2 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

Network A — WAN
Network B — WANNetwork C — LANNetwork B — MAN
Network C — WAN
Network A – LAN
10. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.The network is administered by a single organization.The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).
11.
6625013263 191f4bd24c z ENetwork Chapter 2 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?

piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexingencapsulation
12. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
13. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch
14.
6625017279 e1b09ace74 z ENetwork Chapter 2 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the area B?

source
end
transfer
intermediary
15.
6625025169 29739a279c z ENetwork Chapter 2 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?

WAN
MAN
LANWLAN
16. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link
networktransport
17. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the destination host addressthe bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data
18.
6625027449 f6c2bfc3e8 z ENetwork Chapter 2 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?

A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J
19. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.The process port number is added.
20. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data presentation
reliability, flow control, and error detection
network media controlthe division of segments into packets
21. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physicalpresentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
Read more ...

ENetwork Chapter 3 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – ENetwork Chapter 3 – CCNA Exploration: Network Fundamentals (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

Thứ Hai, 10 tháng 9, 2012

1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?

HTML
HTTP
FTPTelnet
2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
applicationsdialogs
requests
servicessyntax
3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
centralized administrationdoes not require specialized software
security is easier to enforcelower cost implementation
provides a single point of failure
4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
temporarily holds resolved entries
used by the server to resolve namessent by the client to during a query
passes authentication information between the server and client
5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
HTTP
SSH
FQDN
DNSTelnet
SMTP
6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
ARP
DNSPPP
SMTPPOPICMP
7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
acts as both a client and server within the same communication.requires centralized account administration.
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.can be used in client-server networks.requires a direct physical connection between devices.
centralized authentication is required.
8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
HTTP transfers data from a web server to a clientPOP delivers email from the client to the server email server
SMTP supports file sharing
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
MDA
IMAP
MTAPOP
SMTPMUA
10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
not widely available
does not support encryptionconsumes more network bandwidth
does not support authentication
11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
routes email to the MDA on other servers
receives email from the client’s MUAreceives email via the POP3 protocol
passes email to the MDA for final deliveryuses SMTP to route email between serversdelivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol
12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
ASP
FTP
HTML
HTTPHTTPSIP
13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.Specialized operating system software is required.
File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.
14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
physical
session
network
presentation
applicationtransport
15.
6625041183 31363de2f4 z ENetwork Chapter 3 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100%
Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?

801261
15533
3912
65520
16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
scalable
one way data flow
decentralized resourcescentralized user accounts
resource sharing without a dedicated server
17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
DHCP
DNS
SMBSMTP
Telnet
18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
use daemons
initiate data exchangesare repositories of data
may upload data to serverslisten for requests from servers
19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides segmentation of data
provides encryption and conversion of data
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the networkprovides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices
20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
ceases all connections to the service
denies multiple connections to a single daemon
suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service
Read more ...

ENetwork Chapter 1 CCNA 1 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – ENetwork Chapter 1 – CCNA Exploration: Network Fundamentals (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

Thứ Hai, 10 tháng 9, 2012

1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

They are non-network connections.
They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
They are synchronous serial ports.
They are used for initial router configuration.
They are asynchronous serial ports.
They are accessed using their assigned IP address.
2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)
debugging.
password recovery.
routing data between networks.
troubleshooting.
connecting one router to another.
3. Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?
connects peripherals in a single location.
connects multiple networks in a single building.
provides connectivity on a LAN.
provides connectivity over a large geographic area.
4. An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)
switching.
static addressing.
IETF standardization.
dynamic or static routing.
consistent end-to-end addressing.
5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)
straight-through cable.
terminal emulation software.
rollover cable.
RJ-45 to DB-9 connector.
V.35 cable.
6. Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
bits per second.
data bits.
parity.
stop bits.
flow control.
7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)
hubs.
routers.
communication servers.
transceivers.
modems.
multi-port repeaters.
8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)
contains startup configuration file.
stores routing table.
holds fast switching cache.
retains contents when power is removed.
stores running configuration file.
9. Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
can be accessed remotely.
does not depend on network services.
displays startup and error messages by default.
does not require special components.
10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)
CPU.
hard drive.
input/output interfaces.
keyboard.
monitor.
system bus.
11. During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?
twisted.
crossover.
rollover.
straight.
12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores a copy of the router’s configuration file?
metal-oxide memory.
read only memory.
flash memory.
non-volatile random access memory.
13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?
packet configuration.
configuration files.
flash memory.
internal components.
14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)
a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
a crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch.
a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch.
a straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.
a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.
15. Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?
volatile random access memory.
read only memory.
non-volatile random access memory.
flash memory.
16. Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)
physical layer.
application layer.
transport layer.
data link layer.
session layer.
17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)
provide temporary memory for the router configuration files.
connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit.
can be on the motherboard or a separate module.
hold the IOS image.
connect the router to LANs and WANs.
18. Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)
troubleshooting problems.
monitoring the system.
capturing LAN data packets.
configuring the router.
routing data packets.
19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?
ARP tables.
bridging tables.
routing tables.
switching tables.
20. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
stores the routing table.
retains contents when power is removed.
stores the startup configuration file.
contains the running configuration file.
stores the ARP table.
21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)
holds the startup configuration by default.
can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules.
stores Cisco IOS software images.
stores routing table information by default.
maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted.
Read more ...

TSHOOT Final Exam CCNP 6.0 2012 100% - Take Assessment – TSHOOT Final Exam – CCNP TSHOOT: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

Thứ Sáu, 31 tháng 8, 2012

1. Which two advantages does scheduled maintenance offer over interrupt-driven events? (Choose two.)

reduced network downtime
faster time to resolution of problems
simplified troubleshooting processes
predictable lead times for change requests
maintenance windows during regular business hours
2. RSPAN depends on which type of VLAN?
native VLAN
management VLAN
default VLAN
RSPAN VLAN
black hole VLAN
private VLAN
3.
Refer to the exhibit. What information can be deduced from the provided debug aaa accounting command output?

The user successfully gained access to the router EXEC shell.
The user attempts to gain access to a local security server were unsuccessful.
The user credentials were rejected by the default authentication method.
The user access to the services was stopped because of the improper protocol that was used for the session.
4.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show interfaces s0/0/0 command on a router to determine the cause for a recent decrease in device performance. Based on the output shown, what is a possible cause of the observed performance issues?

high CPU usage on the router
insufficient RAM in the router
incorrect or outdated version of the Cisco IOS
unrecognized Layer 2 encapsulation formats on the network
5. In which three situations will traffic be handed off (punted) to the CPU for processing? (Choose three.)
any traffic that is going through a GRE tunnel
any traffic that is explicitly blocked by an ACL
any traffic that is destined for any of the switch IP addresses
any traffic that is assigned to a particular VLAN that is not allowed on a trunk
any traffic that is coming to an inbound port that is in the spanning-tree blocking state
any multicast and broadcast traffic that is coming from the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) or routing protocols
6. An administrator has just implemented two-way route redistribution between an OSPF and EIGRP domain. However, network performance between domains quickly degraded and an investigation revealed routing loops. What action could be used to solve this issue?
Change the seed metric of the routes being redistributed.
Filter the routes being redistributed between the protocols.
Redistribute all subnets in both EIGRP and OSPF domains.
Configure an additional router to be a secondary point of route redistribution.
7. What content can be found in the show ip eigrp topology network mask output?
minimum delay
cumulative cost
hop count
variance
metric weights
8.
Refer to the exhibit. BPDU guard and PortFast have been configured on all edge ports on the access switches. A junior network administrator tested a new switch in the lab and verified that the bridge ID is 32887. What would happen when the administrator plugs this switch into port Fa0/20 on ASW_1 in an attempt to extend the LAN?

Port Fa0/20 will be shut down.
Port Fa0/20 will become a root port.
Port Fa0/20 will start forwarding traffic immediately.
Port Fa0/20 will transition from blocking to forwarding state after the spanning tree convergence.
9. What is a characteristic of network maintenance?
Network maintenance typically excludes consideration of network changes.
Proper network maintenance will eliminate network downtime.
Maintaining network documentation is an important element of network maintenance.
The amount of resources expended on network maintenance is consistent across all companies.
10.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between LAN clients on routers R1 and R3. Connectivity tests from R2 to the R1 and R3 LAN segments are successful. The administrator issues the debug ip icmp command for R1 and confirms that a routing issue exists. Based on the information that is presented in the exhibit, which configuration command would correct the problem?

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.7.1
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.7.10
R2(config)# ip route 172.16.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.7.9
R2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.7.9
R3(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.7.9
R3(config)# ip route 172.16.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.7.10
11. What is the final task in a structured troubleshooting process?
gathering information
testing the hypothesis
documenting the changes
eliminating possible causes
12. Syslogs reveal malicious activity originating from an internal host that is located at IP address 10.10.10.251. From the local gateway router, the administrator successfully pings the host IP address and populates the ARP cache of the router. The administrator then issues the show ip arp 10.10.10.251 command and discovers that the MAC address of the host is 0011.9254.e2a0. What could the administrator do next to discover the physical location of the malicious host?
Issue the show mac address-table address 0011.9254.e2a0 command on various switches and follow the path to the host.
Issue the show vlan command on various switches and follow the path to the host.
Issue the traceroute 0011.9254.e2a0 command and follow the path to the host.
Issue the traceroute 10.10.10.251 command and follow the path to the host.
13. Which two pieces of information are displayed by the debug ip bgp command? (Choose two.)
BGP updates
route redistribution information
BGP related events
phases of BGP peering relationships
internal metrics of IBGP routes
14.
Refer to the exhibit. What could be concluded about the TACACS+ failure based on the exhibited command output from debug tacacsand debug aaa authentication?

The TACACS+ server is not operational.
The TACACS+ server IP address has been incorrectly configured on the router.
The TACACS+ server key of the router does not match that of the TACACS+ server.
The username and password that were supplied by the user were rejected by the TACACS+ server.
15
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issued the debug dhcp detail command to verify the operations of DHCP on router R2. Which statement is correct about the active DHCP processes on R2?

The DHCP server sends a DHCPOFFER message with the full set of configuration parameters to the client.
The DHCP client sends out a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message to find its local DHCP server.
The DHCP server sends a DHCPACK message with the full set of configuration parameters to the client.
The DHCP client sends out a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message to the DHCP server to accept the offered parameters.
16. Which two benefits do the use of templates provide in the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
provide an effective method of maintaining network documentation
ensure that all individuals carry out similar tasks in a consistent manner
document the solution to specific problems eliminating the requirement for troubleshooting
allow each technician to select the best troubleshooting process to use for a particular problem
ensure that the problem is located and corrected regardless of the knowledge level of the technician
17. Which VTP mode is configured on a switch in the implementation of private VLANs?
client
server
transparent
client or server
client or transparent
transparent or server
18. A network administrator notices frames are received on a different port than expected on a switch. What are two plausible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
a routing error
an access list error
duplicate MAC addresses
VLAN trunk misconfiguration
a Spanning Tree Protocol related issue
19. What are the three private VLAN (PVLAN) port types? (Choose three.)
community
edge
isolated
point-to-point
promiscuous
protected
20.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information that is provided, which two NetFlow statements are correct? (Choose two.)

All NetFlow packets sent from R1 to the traffic collector will be sourced from IP address 1.1.1.1.
Interfaces Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 must also be included as flow-export source interfaces.
NetFlow version 5 should be configured if the infrastructure includes non-Cisco devices.
NetFlow will track all ingress traffic for interfaces Fa0/0 and Fa0/1.
NetFlow will forward the traffic statistics and packet payload content of interfaces Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 to IP address 10.10.10.1.
The UDP value 9996 is optional because it is the default NetFlow destination port number.
21.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a NAT translation issue on router R2. The IP addresses of hosts on the R2 LAN are not being translated by R2. Based on the information in the exhibit, what is the issue?

The NAT pool is exhausted.
The static translation prevents any new dynamic translations.
The ACL is using a wrong pool reference.
The R2 LAN is not configured as an inside interface.
22.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured VRRP on routers R1 and R2. However, no output is generated using the show vrrp brief command on router R1. The administrator then verifies the VRRP interface and key chain configurations. Based on the output in the exhibit, what is the cause of the problem?

Interface FastEthernet 0/0 on router R1 requires the vrrp 1 ip 10.1.1.254 command to be issued.
Interface FastEthernet 0/0 on router R1 requires the vrrp 1 preempt command to be issued.
Interface FastEthernet 0/0 on router R1 requires the vrrp 1 priority 100 command to be issued.
Router R1 is configured to use text authentication, while R2 is configured to use MD5 authentication.
Router R1 should be configured to use text authentication.
23.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is investigating a possible network congestion problem. Which information is indicative of network congestion?

The EIGRP neighbor has not sent any hello packets in the last 14 seconds.
The EIGRP neighbor is redistributing routes from OSPF with invalid seed metrics.
The EIGRP neighbor is offline and unreachable.
The Q Cnt field should be at zero.
The Seq Num field should be much higher.
The values of the SRTT and RTO fields should be much lower.
24. Which DHCP message is sent by the server to the client and contains the DHCP configuration parameters?
DHCP DISCOVER
DHCP OFFER
DHCP REQUEST
DHCP ACK
DHCP NAK
DHCP INFORM
25. Which statement is true based on the show ip ospf neighbor command output that is shown in the exhibit?
RTB did not see its router ID in the hello packet that was received from RTA.
RTB did not receive a hello packet from RTA.
RTB is able to exchange routing updates with RTA.
RTB has established an adjacency with RTA.
26.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between R1 and R2. The routers are failing to create a neighbor relationship and no OSPF HELLO packets are traversing the Frame Relay link. Based on the output, what does the administrator need to do on R1 to correct the issue?

Map the DLCI to the link local address of R2.
Change the OSPF neighbor to point to the global unicast address of R2.
Change the IPv6 address on Serial 0/0/0 to be in the same segment as the Serial 0/0/0 interface of R2.
Remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map statement.
27.
Refer to the exhibit. You have been asked to troubleshoot a connectivity issue between R3 and R1. From the partial output of theshow running-config command on both routers, what configuration change is required?

A static route should be added to R3 to point to the 192.168.1.0/24 network.
A static route should be added to R1 to point to the 192.168.1.0/24 network.
The tunnel source for Tunnel0 on R3 should be the IP address of Serial0/0/1 on R1.
The tunnel source for Tunnel0 on R1 should be the IP address of Loopback0 on R3.
The tunnel destination for Tunnel0 on R1 should be the IP address of Serial0/0/1 on R3.
The tunnel destination for Tunnel0 on R3 should be the IP address of Loopback0 on R1.
28. Which type of spanning tree failure is the most disruptive?
The STP reaches its maximum diameter.
Ports that should be blocked start forwarding.
The TTL field in the Ethernet frames decrements to 0 on all frames.
Frames with matching entries in the MAC address table are not forwarded.
29.
Refer to the exhibit. Wireless network users are complaining about performance issues, especially when using Voice over WLAN. Based on the output that is shown, what could be the problem?

QoS is not supported in Lightweight mode.
The trunk between R1 and SW1 does not support QoS.
SW1 is resetting the DSCP values supplied by the Lightweight AP.
The Wireless LAN Controller has not been configured to support voice traffic.
QoS has not been enabled between the Lightweight AP and the Wireless LAN Controller.
30. Which backup mechanism presents the highest security risk?
FTP
HTTPS
SCP
TFTP
31. An administrator notices that CDP is disabled on a port that connects to an IP phone. What effect will this have?
The phone will experience intermittent connectivity.
The phone will be placed into the default VLAN.
The phone will not be able to discover auxiliary VLAN information, QoS settings, or automatically negotiate power settings.
The phone will be able to make calls but will not be able to receive calls.
32. Which two conditions could cause two routers to have trouble establishing a neighbor relationship in an OSPF network? (Choose two.)
The interfaces have different network types.
Hello packets are not sent from either neighbor.
One of the routers is redistributing the OSPF routes into EIGRP.
Slow network connections cause OSPF advertisements to time out.
The network command has put the connected interfaces into the same OSPF area.
33.
Refer to the exhibit. A port channel link between a branch site and the main site experiences an outage after a hardware upgrade at the branch site. The network administrator at the main site checks the log and sees a “%SPANTREE-2-CHNL_MISCFG” message. What is a likely cause of this message?

The branch site has been configured for the Spanning Tree Protocol, but the main site has not.
The main site has been configured to bundle links into an EtherChannel and the branch site has not.
The branch site is running a newer, incompatible version of the Spanning Tree Protocol.
The main site has inconsistencies in the physical ports that are members of the channel.
34.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the debug ip nat command in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

Packets were not translated for the return path from source 192.168.1.95.
Packets that are destined for 172.31.2.132 from source 192.168.1.95 are translated into 172.31.233.209.
Entries that are indicated with NAT* have been translated via the fast path.
The IP address 172.31.233.209 is the configured IP address on the remote PC.
Entries with NAT* have the ToS value 5.
35. When configuring private VLANs, how many isolated VLANs can be mapped to a primary VLAN?
0
1
2
4
platform dependent
36. Which switch error is indicative of a duplex mismatch on the full-duplex side of a link?
Xmit-Err
Rcv-Err
FCS-Err
Giants
37. Refer to the exhibit. Users are complaining that they are unable to access the web server that is located at 172.16.1.101. Based on the partial syslog output that is exhibited, what is causing this problem?
The web server is denying the client request.
There is no logical path from the client to the web server location.
A Java applet reset option is configured on the zone-based policy firewall.
The zone-based policy firewall has been configured to block all HTTP traffic to the server location.
The classic IOS firewall has not been properly configured to allow HTTP traffic in response to an internal request.
38. Which action occurs immediately following POST in the boot process of a Cisco IP phone?
The IP phone sends DHCP broadcasts.
The IP phone initializes the IP stack.
The IP phone uses CDP to learn the voice VLAN.
The IP phone requests a configuration file from a TFTP server.
39. What occurs when the no service password-recovery command is entered on the router?
Passwords will not be encrypted.
Executive passwords can be retrieved and viewed in the running configuration.
Executive passwords can be changed in ROMMON mode.
The original configuration and passwords cannot be retrieved.
All passwords are encrypted to level 7.
40. Which anti-spoofing mechanism will filter packets that enter a multilayer switch through an interface that does not provide the best path back to the source of the packet?
spanning tree
private VLAN
intrusion prevention
VLAN access control lists
Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
41. Which DSCP value should be applied to voice traffic?
AF11
AF31
CS1
EF
42. Which command would a network administrator use to verify which VLANs are allowed on a trunk?
show vlan
show interfaces trunk
show vlan interface
show mac address-table
43.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is troubleshooting an HSRP implementation on routers R1 and R2. Based on the output in the exhibit, what is the probable cause of the problem?

Router R1 requires the standby 1 ip 10.1.1.254 command to be issued on interface FastEthernet 0/0.
Router R2 requires the standby 1 ip 10.1.1.254 command to be issued on interface FastEthernet 0/0.
Router R1 is configured to support MD5 authentication while router R2 is configured to support text authentication.
Router R1 is configured to support text authentication while router R2 is configured to support MD5 authentication.
Routers R1 and R2 have different MD5 authentication strings configured.
Routers R1 and R2 have different text authentication strings configured.
44. What are two problems that can occur when routes are redistributed in two directions? (Choose two.)
suboptimal routing
routing loops
lost seed metrics
route filtering
lost external routes
45.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two FTP-related statements are true? (Choose two.)

The Configuration Rollback feature was preconfigured on router R1 via the archive command.
The configuration was copied using a method that is less secure than HTTPS.
The ip ftp username and ip ftp password commands were issued on router R1.
The login credentials were sent to the FTP server in an encrypted format.
The R1-test.cfg configuration was successfully copied from the FTP server to the running configuration file of router R1.
The R1-test.cfg configuration was successfully copied from the FTP server to the startup configuration file of router R1.
46.
Refer to the exhibit. Users are complaining that they are unable to connect to resources outside of their corporate network during peak hours. What action should the administrator take to correct this problem?

Remove the ACL because it is blocking connections.
Change the FastEthernet 0/1 interface to an inside NAT interface.
Disable CEF because it is sending packets to the CPU for processing.
Disable static NAT because it is interfering with the dynamic translations.
Increase the size of the NAT pool to provide more IP addresses for translation.
47.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to secure the remote administration of the router by enabling the use of the SSH protocol. Which changes should be made on the partial configuration as shown in the graphic?

The enable password must be encrypted.
The commands listed under the VTY line should be listed under the Console line.
The transport input telnet command should be changed to transport input ssh.
The transport input telnet command should be changed to transport input none.
48. Users at a branch office are complaining that they are unable to connect to resources at the head office. The network administrator issues the show ip route command and verifies that the correct next hop IP address and egress interface are listed. What should the administrator do next?
Verify that CEF is running on the router.
Verify the Layer 3 to Layer 2 mappings.
Verify end-to-end connectivity via the use of the ping command.
Verify that the information in the CEF FIB is correct.
Verify that the interface is active and participating in the routing process.
49.
Refer to the exhibit. In a converged spanning tree, how many blocked ports will there be in VLAN 1 for the pictured topology?

1
2
3
4
50.
Refer to the exhibit. Users are complaining that they are receiving duplicate address error messages when they start their machines. What should the administrator do to correct this problem?

Change the address assigned to the default router and dns server.
Decrease the DHCP lease time to make more addresses available at one time.
Change the netmask to 255.0.0.0 to agree with the class A network that is used in the DHCP pool.
Use the ip dhcp excluded-address command to exclude any statically assigned addresses from the DHCP pool.
51. What is a characteristic of network maintenance toolkits?
are vendor specific
may be both GUI and CLI
require expensive investments
support only real-time monitoring
52. What can be inferred from the fact that a switch is receiving BPDUs on a port but not transmitting BPDUs?
The port is a designated port.
The port is a root port.
The port is disabled.
The port is in listening state.
53. A newly configured switch is connected to an existing network. The instant the trunk link is brought up to the rest of the network, the entire network goes down. What could have caused this problem?
The switch was inserted into the network using an incorrect VTP domain name.
The VTP password entered on the new switch did not match that of the existing VTP domain.
The switch should have been placed into VTP Transparent Mode prior to being inserted into the network.
The configuration revision number of the inserted switch was higher than the configuration revision of the VTP domain.
The configuration revision number of the inserted switch was lower than the configuration revision of the VTP domain.
54.
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is investigating a reported issue of Computer1 not receiving its IP configuration from the DHCP server. Computer2 is receiving its configuration from the DHCP server. What is a plausible reason for this issue?

An ACL is blocking broadcasts into the F0/0 interface of router North .
The DHCP server does not have a DHCP pool for 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
The WAN segment between routers East and North should be replaced with a LAN.
The S0/0/0 interface of router East should be configured to provide DHCP relay.
55.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is generated, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

The archive path is the only mandatory archive parameter that must be configured.
Every time the running configuration file is saved to NVRAM, it will also be automatically archived.
The $h and $t parameters will automatically add the device hostname and version number to the archive filename.
Use the archive config privileged EXEC mode command to replace the running configuration file with the most recent archived file.
The time-period parameter must be configured to enable the automatic archiving of the running-configuration file everytime it is saved to NVRAM.
56. What are two limitations of using buffered logging? (Choose two.)
Only high severity messages can be captured.
Messages are lost when there is a connectivity issue.
Log messages are removed when a device is powered down.
Message services may have messages filtered through a firewall.
Oldest messages are overwritten when allocated memory is exceeded.
57.
Refer to the exhibit. You have been asked to correct the configuration on R1 so that the Tunnel 0 interface does not flap and R3 can be consistently reached from R1. What command would you issue on R1 to accomplish this?

ip route 10.3.3.3 255.255.255.255 Tunnel0
ip route 10.3.3.3 255.255.255.255 Serial0/0/0
ip route 172.16.25.3 255.255.255.0 Serial0/0/0
ip route 172.16.25.0 255.255.255.0 Serial0/0/0
ip route 172.16.25.3 255.255.255.255 Tunnel0
ip route 172.16.15.2 255.255.255.255 Tunnel0
58. What type of BGP message precedes the successful formation of a BGP peering session?
update
keepalive
established
withdraw
open
59.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is unable to have two BGP peers exchange routing information. Which solution would correct this problem?

Change the neighbor peer IP addresses on R1 and R2 to the loopback interface IP address of the other router.
Change the neighborx.x.x.xupdate-source command on R1 and R2 to refer to the FastEthernet interfaces.
Enter the neighborx.x.x.xebgp-multihop 1 command on R1 and R2.
Remove the loopback interfaces on each router.
60.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial configuration that is shown, which traffic will be inspected by the zone-based policy firewall?

all TCP traffic that is destined for the public network
all TCP traffic that is destined for the private network
Telnet, SMTP, and HTTP traffic that is destined for the public network
Telnet, SMTP, and HTTP traffic that is destined for the private network
Read more ...

TSHOOT Chapter 8 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – TSHOOT Chapter 8 – CCNP TSHOOT: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

Thứ Sáu, 31 tháng 8, 2012

1. Which video application has the strictest latency requirement?

video collaboration
video conferencing
video surveillance
video signaling
2. Which protocol does a Lightweight AP use to communicate with the Wireless LAN Controller?
802.1Q
IPsec
LWAPP
TCP
3. How does a Cisco IP phone discover which VLAN to use for voice traffic?
CDP
DHCP
TFTP
POST
4.
Refer to the exhibit. A user has a PC that connects to a VoIP phone and the phone connects to port Fa0/1 on the switch. The user is complaining about not being able to access the network. The user cannot access any local print servers and cannot ping any neighboring devices. The administrator attempts to ping the PC of the user but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the show port-security command, what could be the issue?

The switch port has not been able to detect any devices connected to it.
The switch port detected more than one MAC address.
The switch port detected a bridging loop.
The switch port detected a MAC address that belongs to a different VLAN.
5.
Refer to the exhibit. Wireless network users are complaining that they are not able to register with the Wireless LAN Controller. Wireless clients use DHCP to obtain their IP configuration information from R1. Based on the output that is shown, what is the reason that the wireless clients are unable to register with the controller?

The DHCP configuration is missing option 43.
The DCHP pool should be specified as 10.10.0.0/16 to include both VLANs.
The DHCP default-router command must specify the IP address of the WLC.
The DHCP configuration should specify the 10.10.20.0/24 pool, as this is where the WLC is located.
6. Users complain that voice calls are choppy and of poor quality. A network administrator verifies the settings on the interface and discovers that no QoS has been configured. Which priority level should be applied to the voice traffic in order to improve the quality of voice calls?
normal priority
highest priority
medium priority
lowest priority
7.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is troubleshooting why host CL1 cannot communicate with the other hosts in the network. What appears to be the problem?

Port Gi0/1 of ASw1 is disabled.
VLAN 104 is not being permitted on the trunk.
The native VLAN on the trunk should be VLAN 1.
Port Gi0/2 of ASw1 should be configured as a trunk.
8.
Refer to the exhibit. A user is not able to use a VoIP phone. Based on the output, what could be the problem?

The phone is in the wrong VLAN.
The switchport mode is incorrect.
QoS is missing.
CDP is disabled.
9.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is troubleshooting a video multicast problem on router R1. Users on the FastEthernet 0/1 are not receiving multicast traffic over the Serial 0/0/0 WAN link. Which statement correctly identifies the problem?

Router R1 has not been configured with the ip multicast-routing command.
The Fa0/1 interface has not been configured with the ip pim sparse-dense-mode command.
The S0/0/0 interface has not been configured with the ip pim sparse-dense-mode command.
The S0/0/0 interface should be configured with the ip pim version 1 command.
The S0/0/0 interface should be configured with the ip pim version 2 command.
10.
Refer to the exhibit. After a major network upgrade, network users complain about poor video application performance. A network administrator verified that all trunk links are up and operational and the EtherChannel configuration is correct. The output of the show interfaces port-channel command reveals that there is a 0 packet output rate over the last 5 minutes on the Po2 uplink. What could be done to correct the issue?

Configure switch A_SW1 to be the root bridge for the network for all VLANs.
Configure switch D_SW1 to be the STP root for VLANs 10 and 20, and D_SW2 to be the root for VLANs 30 and 40.
Remove the EtherChannel trunk uplinks from the access switch A_SW1 to the distribution switches.
Remove the EtherChannel trunk uplinks from the access switch A_SW1 to the distribution switch D_SW2.
11. What value does a Cisco IP phone receive in DHCP option 150?
IP address of TFTP server
IP address of DHCP server
IP address of NTP server
PoE value setting
Voice VLAN setting
CDP neighbor list
12.
Refer to the exhibit. Users complained that they have experienced performance degradation for all video applications that are coming from the video server. Based on the provided outputs, what could be the possible cause of the problem?

STP is blocking the redundant links that are bundled in both channels, thus causing the video traffic to be dropped.
STP is blocking the redundant links that are bundled in the Po2 channel, thus causing half of the video traffic to be dropped.
STP is alternating between channels when forwarding video traffic over the redundant links, thus causing a loss of video traffic.
STP is blocking the redundant links that are bundled in the Po2 channel, thus causing the video traffic to be forwarded over the Po1 channel only.
13.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to connect an IP phone to FastEthernet 0/22, which is currently configured to support a workstation. What three configuration commands are recommended to accommodate the addition of the phone? (Choose three.)

no cdp enable
mls qos trust cos
ip dhcp client request
switchport port-security
switchport voice vlan 10
mls qos trust device cisco-phone
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
14. IP phones are unable to register with the router and download their firmware and configuration files. A colleague advises that you should check to ensure that the protocols required for this process are not blocked by the IOS firewall. What two lines should you look for in the ACL? (Choose two.)
permit tcp any any eq 22
permit tcp any any eq 23
permit tcp any any eq ftp
permit udp any any eq 69
permit tcp any any eq http
permit udp any any eq https
permit tcp any any eq www
permit tcp any any eq 2000
15. If an ACL is used on a port that connects to an Cisco IP phone, which two protocols must be allowed in the ACL for the Cisco IP phone to work? (Choose two.)
SCCP
SMTP
SNMP
Telnet
TFTP
WWW
16.
Refer to the exhibit. The network security auditing team has added access lists to the network configurations in an attempt to improve network security. Users of the wireless network are now complaining that they can no longer associate to the wireless LAN. Based on the output shown, what must be added to the access list to restore connectivity?

permit tcp any any range 12222 12223
permit udp host 10.10.10.4 host 10.10.20.5 range 12222 12223
permit udp host 10.10.20.5 host 10.10.10.4 range 12222 12223
permit tcp host 10.10.20.5 host 10.10.10.4 range 12222 12223
17. A network technician is adding a wireless access point to an existing network. However, the wireless clients will not associate with the AP. What action can be taken to isolate the root cause?
Enable encryption on the AP.
Remove the IP address from the AP.
Temporarily disable ACLs on the AP.
Shut down the LAN interface on the AP.
18. A network administrator is troubleshooting an IP multicast problem. After the administrator alters an IGMP configuration, which command should be used to verify the multicast routing table entries?
show ip igmp interface
show ip igmp membership
show ip mroute
show ip pim interface
show ip pim neighbor
show ip route
19.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the debug ephone register command?

The router was able to successfully register the phone.
There is an IP address mismatch that is detected on the phone.
The IP address that is detected for the phone is 10.1.0.6.
The phone is in Voice VLAN 7.
20.
Refer to the exhibit. Users who are connected to SW1 are part of the multicast group 224.1.1.1, and they are complaining that they do not receive a video stream from the source. Based on the provided output, what could be done to remedy the problem?

Apply the ip pim sparse-dense-mode command to interface Fa0/1 on router R1.
Apply the ip pim sparse-dense-mode command to interface S0/0/0 on router R2.
Apply the ip igmp join-group command to interface Fa0/0 on router R1.
Apply the ip igmp join-group command to interface Fa0/1 on router R2.
Read more ...

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