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CCNA 3 Routing and Switching Scaling Networks Final Exam Answers 2014

Thứ Ba, 15 tháng 4, 2014

CCNA 3 Routing and Switching Scaling Networks Final Exam Answers 2014

Take Assessment Download PDF
1
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to upgrade the IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. After the new image has been downloaded and copied to the TFTP server, what command should be issued on the router before the IOS system image is upgraded on the router?
ping 10.10.10.1
dir flash:
ping 10.10.10.2*
copy tftp: flash0:
2
Fill in the blank.
The ”  backbone  ”  area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.
3
Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?
the interface IPv6 link-local address*
the 32-bit router ID
the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address
the IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface
4
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?
The link-local addresses of neighbor routers interfaces are configured manually.*
If R1 does not receive a hello packet from the neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 in 2 seconds, it will declare the neighbor router is down.
R1 has two neighbors. They connect to R1 through their S0/0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces.
The neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 is the first EIGRP neighbor that is learned by R1.
5
Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose two.)
The network 192.168.10.8/30 can be reached through 192.168.11.1.
The reported distance to network 192.168.1.0/24 is 41024256.
Router R1 has two successors to the 172.16.3.0/24 network.
There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30.*
The neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network.*
6

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator attempts to configure EIGRP for IPv6 on a router and receives the error message that is shown. Which command must be issued by the administrator before EIGRP for IPv6 can be configured?
eigrp router-id 100.100.100.100
no shutdown
ipv6 eigrp 100
ipv6 cef
ipv6 unicast-routing*
7
What two conditions have to be met in order to form a cluster that includes 5 access points? (Choose two.)
The APs must use different cluster names.
The APs must all be configured to use different radio modes.
At least two controllers are needed to form the cluster.
The APs have to be connected on the same network segment.*
Clustering mode must be enabled on the APs.*
8
Which technological factor determines the impact of a failure domain?
the forwarding rate of the switches used on the access layer
the number of layers of the hierarchical network
the role of the malfunctioning device*
the number of users on the access layer
9
Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?
SW1: desirable
SW2: desirable
SW1: passive
SW2: active
SW1: on
SW2: on*
SW1: auto
SW2: auto
trunking enabled on both switches
SW1: auto
SW2: auto
PortFast enabled on both switches
10
In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the distribution layer? (Choose two.)
provide Power over Ethernet to devices
provide a high-speed network backbone
connect remote networks*
connect users to the network
provide data traffic security*
11
A network engineer is implementing security on all company routers. Which two commands must be issued to force authentication via the password 1C34dE for all OSPF-enabled interfaces in the backbone area of the company network? (Choose two.)
area 0 authentication message-digest*
ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 1C34dE*
username OSPF password 1C34dE
enable password 1C34dE
area 1 authentication message-digest
12
When does an OSPF router become an ABR?
when the router is configured as an ABR by the network administrator
when the router has interfaces in different areas*
when the router has an OSPF priority of 0
when the router has the highest router ID
13
Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?
ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN number(s)
ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput
ability to build a routing table*
ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself
14
A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?
A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.
This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.
The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.*
This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.
15
A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default command. What is the result of this command being issued on a Cisco switch?
Any switch port will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.*
Any trunk ports will be allowed to connect to the network immediately, rather than waiting to converge.
Any switch port that receives a BPDU will ignore the BPDU message.
16
What are two differences between the Cisco IOS 12 and IOS 15 versions? (Choose two.)
Every Cisco ISR G2 platform router includes a universal image in the IOS 12 versions, but not the IOS 15 versions.
The IOS version 15 license key is unique to each device, whereas the IOS version 12 license key is not device specific.*
The IOS 12 version has two trains that occur simultaneously, whereas the IOS 15 version still has two trains, but the versions occur in a single sequential order.
The IOS 12 version has commands that are not available in the 15 version.
IOS version 12.4(20)T1 is a mainline release, whereas IOS version 15.1(1)T1 is a new feature release.*
17
Refer to the exhibit. What are two results of issuing the displayed commands on S1, S2, and S3? (Choose two.)
S3 can be elected as a secondary bridge.
S2 can become root bridge if S3 fails.
S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the lowest.*
S2 can become root bridge if S1 fails.*
S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the highest.
18
A remote classroom can successfully access video-intensive streaming lectures via wired computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access point is installed and used with 25 wireless laptops to access the same lectures, poor audio and video quality is experienced. Which wireless solution would improve the performance for the laptops?
Upgrade the access point to one that can route.
Decrease the power of the wireless transmitter.
Adjust the wireless NICs in the laptops to operate at 10GHz to be compatible with 802.11n.
Add another access point.*
19
A network engineer is troubleshooting a single-area OSPFv3 implementation across routers R1, R2, and R3. During the verification of the implementation, it is noted that the routing tables on R1 and R2 do not include the entry for a remote LAN on R3. Examination of R3 shows the following:
that all interfaces have correct addressing
that the routing process has been globally configured
that correct router adjacencies have formed
What additional action taken on R3 could solve the problem?
Force DR/BDR elections to occur where required.
Use the network command to configure the LAN network under the global routing process.
Enable the OSPFv3 routing process on the interface connected to the remote LAN.*
Restart the OPSFv3 routing process.
20
When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM
when a router has more than three active interfaces
when a network contains discontiguous network addresses*
when a router has less than five active interfaces
when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
21
When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the active state?
when the EIGRP domain is converged
when there is outgoing traffic toward the destination network
when the connection to the successor of the destination network fails and there is no feasible successor available*
when there is an EIGRP message from the successor of the destination network
22
Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical network design?
add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network
continually purchase backup equipment for the network*
immediately replace a non-functioning module, service or device on a network
implement STP portfast between the switches on the network
23
Fill in the blank. Use the acronym.
Which encryption protocol is used by the WPA2 shared key authentication technique? ” AES ”
 24
Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?
R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information originate command.
R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet.
R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.*
The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet.
R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet.
25
Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which configuration must be entered?
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 255.255.255.248
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 255.255.255.248
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 255.255.255.192
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63*
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
26
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting missing OSPFv3 routes on a router. What is the cause of the problem based on the command output?
The local router has formed complete neighbor adjacencies, but must be in a 2WAY state for the router databases to be fully synchronized.
The neighbor IDs are incorrect. The interfaces must use only IPv6 addresses to ensure fully synchronized routing databases.
The dead time must be higher than 30 for all routers to form neighbor adjacencies.
There is a problem with the OSPFv3 adjacency between the local router and the router that is using the neighbor ID 2.2.2.2.*
27
Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output? (Choose two.)
The bundle is fully operational.
The port channel is a Layer 3 channel.
The EtherChannel is down.*
The port channel ID is 2.*
The load-balancing method used is source port to destination port.
28
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the command output shown, what is the status of the EtherChannel?
The EtherChannel is dynamic and is using ports Fa0/10 and Fa0/11 as passive ports.
The EtherChannel is in use and functional as indicated by the SU and P flags in the command output.*
The EtherChannel is down as evidenced by the protocol field being empty.
The EtherChannel is partially functional as indicated by the P flags for the FastEthernet ports.
29
A network engineer is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to make better use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the engineer implement?
FHRP
VRRP
GLBP*
HSRP
30
Users on an IEEE 801.11n network are complaining of slow speeds. The network administrator checks the AP and verifies it is operating properly. What can be done to improve the wireless performance in the network?
Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.*
Set the AP to mixed mode.
Change the authentication method on the AP.
Switch to an 802.11g AP.
31
A network administrator is troubleshooting slow performance in a Layer 2 switched network. Upon examining the IP header, the administrator notices that the TTL value is not decreasing. Why is the TTL value not decreasing?
This is the normal behavior for a Layer 2 network.*
The VLAN database is corrupt.
The MAC address table is full.
The inbound interface is set for half duplex.
32
What is a wireless modulation technique used by 802.11 WLAN standards that can implement MIMO?
FHSS
OFDM*
BSS
DSSS
33
Which technology is an open protocol standard that allows switches to automatically bundle physical ports into a single logical link?
Multilink PPP
PAgP
DTP
LACP*
34
A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge priority value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?
32768
4096
65535
61440*
35
Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who is installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses Bluetooth?
ad hoc mode*
hotspot
mixed mode
infrastructure mode
36
Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?
10.0.0.0/8*
10.1.0.0/16
10.1.0.0/28
10.1.1.0/24
10.1.2.0/24
10.1.3.0/24
10.1.4.0/28
37
When are EIGRP update packets sent?
only when necessary*
every 30 seconds via broadcast
every 5 seconds via multicast
when learned routes age out
38
Which requirement should be checked before a network administrator performs an IOS image upgrade on a router?
The old IOS image file has been deleted.
The FTP server is operational.
There is sufficient space in flash memory.*
The desired IOS image file has been downloaded to the router.
39
What method of wireless authentication is dependent on a RADIUS authentication server?
WPA Personal
WEP
WPA2 Enterprise*
WPA2 Personal
40
A network administrator wants to verify the default delay values for the interfaces on an EIGRP-enabled router. Which command will display these values?
show running-config
show interfaces*
show ip protocols
show ip route
41
A network administrator in a branch office is configuring EIGRP authentication between the branch office router and the headquarters office router. Which security credential is needed for the authentication process?
a randomly generated key with the crypto key generate rsa command
a common key configured with the key-string command inside a key chain*
the username and password configured on the headquarters office router
the hostname of the headquarters office router and a common password
42
Refer to the exhibit. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 on S1 is connected to Interface FastEthernet 0/1 on S2, and Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S1 is connected to Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S2. What are two errors in the present EtherChannel configurations? (Choose two.)
Desirable mode is not compatible with on mode.
The trunk mode is not allowed for EtherChannel bundles.
Two auto modes cannot form a bundle.*
The channel group is inconsistent.*
The interface port channel ID should be different in both switches.
43
Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to reach the root bridge?
disabled port
root port*
designated port
non-designated port
44
What are two features of OSPF interarea route summarization? (Choose two.)
ASBRs perform all OSPF summarization.
Routes within an area are summarized by the ABR.*
Route summarization results in high network traffic and router overhead.
ABRs advertise the summarized routes into the backbone.*
Type 3 and type 5 LSAs are used to propagate summarized routes.
45
Launch PT  Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which message was displayed on the web server?
Work done!
Congratulations!
Wonderful work!
You’ve made it!*
46
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information could be determined by a network administrator from this output? (Choose two.)
The metric that will be installed in the routing table for the 10.0.0.0 route will be 65 (64+1).
Interface Fa0/1 is not participating in the OSPF process.
R1 is the distribution point for the routers that are attached to the 10.0.0.4 network.
R1 is participating in multiarea OSPF.*
The OSPF process number that is being used is 0.
47
RouterA# -> copy flash0:tftp:
Source Filename? -> C1900-universalk9-m.SPA.152-4.M3.bin
Address or name of remote host ->2001:DB8:CAFE:100::9
48
A network administrator has configured an EtherChannel between two switches that are connected via four trunk links. If the physical interface for one of the trunk links changes to a down state, what happens to the EtherChannel?
Spanning Tree Protocol will recalculate the remaining trunk links.
The EtherChannel will remain functional.
The EtherChannel will transition to a down state.*
Spanning Tree Protocol will transition the failed physical interface into forwarding mode.
49
Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?
MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers
MAC address of the standby router
MAC address of the virtual router*
MAC address of the forwarding router
50
Refer to the exhibit. A company has migrated from single area OSPF to multiarea. However, none of the users from network 192.168.1.0/24 in the new area can be reached by anyone in the Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is the problem?
There are no interarea routes in the routing table for network 192.168.1.0.*
The OSPF routing process is inactive.
The router has not established any adjacencies with other OSPF routers.
The link to the new area is down.
51
What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)
Telnet or SSH access to the device
a connection to an operational network interface on the device
a direct connection to the console or AUX port*
a terminal emulation client*
HTTP access to the device
52
For troubleshooting missing EIGRP routes on a router, what three types of information can be collected using the show ip protocols command? (Choose three.)
any interfaces on the router that are configured as passive*
any ACLs that are affecting the EIGRP routing process*
any interfaces that are enabled for EIGRP authentication
networks that are unadvertised by the EIGRP routing protocol*
the local interface that is used to establish an adjacency with EIGRP neighbors
the IP addresses that are configured on adjacent routers
53
What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two switches? (Choose two.)
All the interfaces need to work at the same speed.*
All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs.
The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch.
All the interfaces need to be working in the same duplex mode.*
Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end.
54
This type of LSA exists in multi-access & non-broadcast multi-access networks w/DR   =>   TYPE 2 LSA
This type of LSA describes routes to networks outside of the OSPF AS   =>  TYPE 5 LSA
This type of LSA is flooded only within the area which it originated    =>   TYPE 1 LSA
This type of LSA is used by ABR to advertise networks from other areas    =>   TYPE 3 LSA
55
At a local college, students are allowed to connect to the wireless network without using a password. Which mode is the access point using?
network
shared-key
open*
passive
56
What are three access layer switch features that are considered when designing a network? (Choose three.)
broadcast traffic containment
forwarding rate***
failover capability
Power over Ethernet***
speed of convergence
port density***
57
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.1.0 in the R2 routing table?
This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area.
This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.*
This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.
58
Which two statements are correct about EIGRP acknowledgment packets? (Choose two.)
The packets are sent as unicast.*
The packets are unreliable.*
The packets are used to discover neighbors that are connected on an interface.
The packets require confirmation.
The packets are sent in response to hello packets.
59
An STP instance has failed and frames are flooding the network. What action should be taken by the network administrator?
Broadcast traffic should be investigated and eliminated from the network.
Spanning tree should be disabled for that STP instance until the problem is located.
Redundant links should be physically removed until the STP instance is repaired.*
A response from the network administrator is not required because the TTL field will eventually stop the frames from flooding the network.
60
A network administrator issues the command R1(config)# license boot module c1900 technology-package securityk9 on a router. What is the effect of this command?
The IOS will prompt the user to provide a UDI in order to activate the license.
The IOS will prompt the user to reboot the router.
The features in the Security package are available immediately.
The Evaluation Right-To-Use license for the Security technology package is activated.*
61
A router has been removed from the network for maintenance. A new Cisco IOS software image has been successfully downloaded to a server and copied into the flash of the router. What should be done before placing the router back into service?
Delete the previous version of the Cisco IOS software from flash.
Copy the running configuration to NVRAM.
Back up the new image.
Restart the router and verify that the new image starts successfully.*
62
What are the two methods that are used by a wireless NIC to discover an AP? (Choose two.)
receiving a broadcast beacon frame*
delivering a broadcast frame
transmitting a probe request*
sending an ARP request
initiating a three-way handshak
63
Refer to the exhibit. Why did R1 and R2 not establish ad adjacency?
The link-local address must be the same on both routers.
The AS number must be the same on R1 and R2.*
R1 S0/0/0 and R2 S0/0/0 are on different networks.
The no shutdown command is misapplied on both routers.
The router ID must be the same on both routers.
64
feasible distance to 192.168.11.64 => 660110
new successor to network 192.168.1.0 => 192.168.3.1
destination network => 192.168.11.64

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CCNA 2 v5.0 R&S Essentials Final Exam Answers 2014

Thứ Năm, 20 tháng 2, 2014

CCNA 2 v5.0 R&S Essentials Final Exam Answers 2014

Take Assessment
1.
What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers. 

Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
2.
Fill in the blank.
In IPv6, all routes are level   ” 1 ”  ultimate routes.
3.
Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
ingress port buffering
cut-through switching
store-and-forward switching 
borderless switching
4.
Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0
5.
1
3
4
2
6.
When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?
data VLAN ID
native VLAN ID 
unused VLAN ID
management VLAN ID
7.
A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?
ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5
ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365
ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365
No additional configuration is necessary.
ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225
8.
Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols. 
It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
It has an administrative distance of 1.
It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
9.
A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?
in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN
in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device
in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server
in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN
10
Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?
The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.
The ipv6 route command was used.
the ip route command was used.
Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.
11
 
Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)
(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
(config-if)# no switchport
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252
(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown
(config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
(config)# interface fastethernet0/4
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
(config)# ip routing
12.
A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?
Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.
Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.
All devices in all VLANs see the frame.
13
 
the correct answer of question 13 is
1- Each router learns about its own directly connected networks.
2- Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbors on directly connected networks.
3- Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
4- Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
5- Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best
14.
Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)
computer type
source TCP hello address
ICMP message type
destination UDP port number 

destination MAC address
15
Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?
Add an administrative distance of 254.
Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.
Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.
16.
How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?
the highest IPv6 address on an active interface
the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface
the highest IPv4 address on an active interface 
the lowest MAC address on an active interface
17.
Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict
switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect
18.
Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)
speed of convergence
scalability 

ISP selection
the autonomous system that is used
campus backbone architecture
19
ultimate route
child route
default route
level 1 parent route
20.
What caused the following error message to appear?
01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state
01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.
01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.
Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.
21.
Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.
They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.
The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.
They are used for point-to-multipoint links.
They are not associated with a particular VLAN.
22.
A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?
permit ip any host ip_address
permit icmp any any nd-na 
permit ip any any
deny ip any any
23

24.
What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
Cost equals bandwidth.
A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.
25
 
Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)
outbound
R2 S0/0/1
R1 S0/0/0
inbound
R1 Gi0/1.12
R2 Gi0/1.20
26.
On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?
Switch(config)# no vlan 100 
Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100
Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat
27.
A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1 
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 
RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
28.
What is a function of the distribution layer?
interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets 
network access to the user
fault isolation
high-speed backbone connectivity
29.
A small-sized company has 20 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. What technology should the company implement in order to allow the workstations to access the services over the Internet?
static NAT
dynamic NAT
port address translation
DHCP
30.
Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
The link interface subnet masks must match. 
The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command. 
The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match. 
The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.
The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.
31.
Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)
the cost of that link 
the type of network link 
the link bandwidth
the link next-hop IP address
the link router interface IP address and subnet mask
32.
What is a disadvantage of NAT?
The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
There is no end-to-end addressing.
The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.
The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
33

Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?
There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.
The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50. 
The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.
34
 
Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?
R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.
A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.
The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.
The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.
35.
What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
They use hop count as their only metric.
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors. 
They flood the entire network with routing updates.
They only send out updates when a new network is added.
36.
A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
37.
Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)
The path a static route uses to send data is known.
No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.
Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security. 
Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does. 
Configuration of static routes is error-free.
Static routes scale well as the network grows.
38.
When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?
show active SSH ports on the switch
disconnect SSH connected hosts
create a public and private key pair 
show SSH connected hosts
access the SSH database configuration
39.
Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?
the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
the source MAC address and the incoming port 
the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
the source MAC address and the outgoing port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
the destination MAC address and the incoming port
40
 
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?
The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.
The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.
No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
41.
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What is the problem preventing PC0 and PC1 from communicating with PC2 and PC3?
The routers are using different OSPF process IDs.
The serial interfaces of the routers are in different subnets.
No router ID has been configured on the routers.
The gigabit interfaces are passive.
42
 
Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
43.
Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?
The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.
There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.
A cable has not been attached to the port.
An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.
44.
Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)
access list number between 100 and 199 
source subnet mask and wildcard mask
default gateway address and wildcard mask
source address and wildcard mask 
destination subnet mask and wildcard mask
access list number between 1 and 99
destination address and wildcard mask
45.
A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?
0.0.0.127
0.0.0.255
0.0.1.255 
0.0.255.255
A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.
46.
Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?
a DHCPREQUEST unicast message 
a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message
a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message
47.
What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?
They request more information about their databases.
They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.
They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.
They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs
48.
What benefit does NAT64 provide?
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses. 
It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
49.
What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?
The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.
A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs. 
The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced
50.
Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?
ip helper-address
ip address dhcp 
ip dhcp pool
service dhcp
51.
Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?
IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.
IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.
IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes. 
IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols
52.
A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?
ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100
ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200 
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100
53
 
Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?
5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains
16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains
54.
Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)
show processes
show cdp neighbor
show access-lists
show ip route
show running-config
55.
Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?
IPsec
DNS
Telnet
HTTP
ICMP
56.
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which keyword is displayed on the web browser?
NAT works!
Goodjob!
Welldone!
NAT configured!
57
Refer to the exhibit.
What summary static address would be configured on R1 to advertise to R3?
192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/23
192.168.0.0/22
192.168.0.0/21
58
Fill in the blank.
Static routes are configured by the use of the ” ip route” global configuration command.

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