EWAN Final Exam CCNA 4 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – EWAN Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

Update Sep 2012 95%

1. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
checksum
digital certificates
encapsulation
encryption
hashing

2. Which network component has the primary function of detecting and logging attacks made against the network?
Cisco Security Agent
antivirus software scanner
intrusion detection system
intrusion prevention system

3.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?
The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng network command is not configured.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.

4. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)
Once a good password is created, do not change it.
Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.
Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.
Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.
Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.
Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.

5.
Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?
The clock rate must be 56000.
The usernames are misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.

6.
Refer to the exhibit. Headquarters is connected through the Internet to branch office A and branch office B. Which WAN technology would be best suited to provide secure connectivity between headquarters and both branch offices?
ATM
VPN
ISDN
Frame Relay
broadband DSL

7. Which combination of authentication and Layer 2 protocol should be used to establish a link between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router without sending authentication information in plain text?
CHAP and HDLC
CHAP and PPP
PAP and HDLC
PAP and PPP

8. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports?
Company 2 downloads larger files than company 1 downloads.
Company 2 must share the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares.
Company 1 is closer to the service provider than is company 2.
Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has.

9.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the Internet. The access list must still permit the 192.168.1.0/24 network access to the 192.168.2.0 network. On which router interface and in which direction should the access control list be applied?
interface Fa0/0, inbound
interface Fa0/0, outbound
interface S0/0/0, inbound
interface S0/0/0, outbound

10. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

11.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?
Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
Check that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

12.
Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?
Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet .

13. What component of VPN technology combines message text with a key to make the message unreadable by unauthorized receivers?
message hash
user password
RSA signature
encryption algorithm

14. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?
protocol type
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address

15.
Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?
The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
The existing ACL is modified to include the new command.
A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command.

16.
Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 have not received any RIP routing updates. What will fix the issue?
Enable RIP authentication on R2.
Issue the ip directed-broadcast command on R2.
Change the subnet masks to 10.11.12.0/8 and 172.16.40.0/16 on R2.
Enable CDP on R2 so that the other routers will receive routing updates.

17. What name is given to the location where a customer network interfaces with a network that is owned by another organization?
CPE
DCE
local loop
demarcation point

18.
Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the Orlando router to the DC router?
DLCI 123
DLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the DC router

19.
Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset
unplugged cable
improper LMI type
PPP negotiation failure

20. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 10.10.4.1 10.10.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 10.10.4.1 and 10.10.4.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 10.10.4.1 and 10.10.4.5.
The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 10.10.4.1 to 10.10.4.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 10.10.4.1 and 10.10.4.5.

21. What functionality do access control lists provide when implementing dynamic NAT on a Cisco router?
which addresses are allowed to be accessed from the inside network
which addresses are allowed out of the router
which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
which addresses are to be translated

22. Which statement about a VPN is true?
VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.
DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.
VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.
Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.

23.
Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?
There is a Layer 2 loop.
The VTP domain names do not match.
Only one switch can be in server mode.
S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

24. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can also successfully ping using the mail server name. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
physical layer
network layer
data link layer
application layer

25. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?
ATM
Frame Relay
HDLC
PPP
SDLC

26. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

27. Which statement accurately describes a role that is played in establishing a WAN connection?
ISDN and ATM are circuit-switched technologies that are used to establish on demand a path through the service provider network.
Data link layer protocols like PPP and HDLC define how data is encapsulated for transmission across a WAN link.
A packet-switching network establishes a dedicated circuit between nodes for the duration of the communication session.
Frame Relay switches are normally considered to be customer premises equipment (CPE) and are maintained by local administrators.

28.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynamic in the output of the command?
The bandwidth capability of the interface increases and decreases automatically based on BECNs.
The Serial0/0/1 interface acquired 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server.
The mapping between DLCI 100 and 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP.
DLCI 100 will automatically adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud.

29. What is an accurate description of CHAP when used with PPP on a serial connection between two routers?
A username and password are sent to the peer router, which replies with an accept or reject message.
A username and password are sent to the peer router. If these match the configuration in the peer, the peer in turn provides a username and password to the initiating router.
A challenge message is sent to the peer router, which responds with its username and a calculated value based on a shared secret. This value is then compared by the challenger to its own calculations.
An encrypted password is sent to the peer router, which decrypts it and compares it to a shared secret. If the decrypted passwords match, the peer sends the encrypted password back to the initiating router.

30. Which technology is used to dynamically map next hop, network layer addresses to virtual circuits in a Frame Relay network?
Inverse ARP
LMI
DLCI

31.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to connect R1 remotely to make configuration changes. Based on the exhibited command output, what will be the result when attempting to connect to R1?
failure to connect due to Telnet not being enabled
failure to connect due to incomplete configuration for Telnet
a successful connection and ability to make configuration changes
a successful connection but inability to make configuration changes because of the absence of an enable secret password

32. A DHCP server is configured with a block of excluded addresses. What two devices would be assigned static addresses from the excluded address range? (Choose two.)
a protocol analyzer
DNS server for the network
network printer that is used by many different users
a laptop that will get a different address each time it boots up

33.
Refer to the exhibit. The corporate network that is shown has been assigned network 172.16.128.0/19 for use at branch office LANs. If VLSM is used, what mask should be used for addressing hosts at Branch4 with minimal waste from unused addresses?
/19
/20
/21
/22
/23
/24

34. Compared with IDS systems, what can IPS systems do to provide further protection of computer systems?
detect potential attacks
stop the detected attack from executing
update OS patches for computer systems
scan computer systems for viruses and spyware

35. A company has its headquarters office in Dallas and five branch offices located in New York, Chicago, Los Angeles, Seattle, and Atlanta. WAN links are used for communications among offices in six sites. In planning the WAN links, the network designer is given two requirements: (1) minimize cost and (2) provide a certain level of WAN link reliability with redundant links. Which topology should the network designer recommend?
star
full mesh
hierarchical
partial mesh

36.
Refer to the exhibit. Every time the administrator reboots this router, the boot process ends in setup mode. What is a possible problem?
There is insufficient RAM for the IOS to load on this router.
A password recovery process should be done on this router.
The bootstrap version and the version of the IOS are different.
The IOS image is damaged and must be reloaded using tftpdnld.
The configuration register is set to ignore the startup configuration.

37. An administrator issues the command show interfaces s0/1/0 on a router that is configured for Frame Relay. Which console output may indicate an LMI mismatch?
Serial0/1/0 is administratively down
Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is up
Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is down
Serial0/1/0 is down, line protocol is down

38.
Refer to the exhibit. Users who are connected to R1 report that they are unable to establish connectivity to the users who are connected to router R2. A network administrator tests the link with the debug ppp authentication command. Based on the output shown, which statement correctly defines the problem on the link?
R1 uses PAP as a method of authentication, and R2 uses CHAP.
R1 uses CHAP as a method of authentication, and R2 uses PAP.
R1 uses an incorrect user name or password for CHAP authentication.
R2 uses an incorrect user name or password for PAP authentication.

39. Which IP address and wildcard mask combination can be used in an ACL statement to match the 172.16.0.0/30 network?
172.16.0.0 0.0.0.1
172.16.0.0 0.0.0.3
172.16.0.0 0.0.0.7
172.16.0.0 255.255.255.252

40. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)
reduced jitter
reduced costs
reduced latency
the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth
the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

41.
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?
10.1.1.2:1234
172.30.20.1:1234
172.30.20.1:3333
192.168.1.2:80

42. What function does LCP perform in the establishment of a PPP session?
LCP brings the network layer protocols up and down.
It carries packets from several network layer protocols.
It encapsulates and negotiates options for IP and IPX.
It negotiates and sets up control options on the WAN data link.

43. An employee of XYZ corporation will begin working from home. The employee has a choice of DSL or cable technology for WAN connectivity. Which connectivity characteristic is accurately described?
Cable transfer rates are dependent on the length of the local loop.
DSL provides a high-speed connection over existing copper phone wires.
DSL download speeds are affected by high usage in the area.
DSL service shares the same frequency range as voice calls.
Cable connectivity usually requires new fiber installed for the local loop.

44. Which option represents a best practice for applying ACLs?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied inside the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces use fewer router resources.
Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

45. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows “up, line protocol up”. The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
network layer
data link layer
physical layer

46. Which two configurations must be completed before an RSA key can be generated on a router? (Choose two.)
a hostname
a domain name
the SSH version
the SSH timeouts
local authentication on the VTY lines

47. What type of ACL can be used to force a user to authenticate to the router before accessing a network?
standard
dynamic
reflexive
time-based

48. What is the result when the command security passwords min-length 8 is entered into a router?
All new passwords are required to be a minimum of 8 characters in length.
All current passwords are now required to be a minimum of 8 characters in length.
Enable passwords must be at least 8 characters but line passwords are unaffected.
Nothing will happen until the command service password-encryption is entered. Then all future passwords must have a minimum of 8 characters.

49. Because of a remote-procedure call failure, a user is unable to access an NFS server. At what layer of the TCP/IP model does this problem occur?
network layer
data link layer
physical layer
application layer

50. What is the result when the command permit tcp 10.25.132.0 0.0.0.255 any eq smtp is added to a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?
TCP traffic with a destination to the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted.
Only Telnet traffic is permitted to the 10.24.132.0/24 network
Ttraffic from 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to anywhere on using any port.
Traffic using port 25 from the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to all destinations.

—————

1.

Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset
unplugged cable
improper LMI type
PPP negotiation failure

2.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?
frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

3. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?
ATM
Frame Relay
HDLC
PPP
SDLC

4.

Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?
a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 ddress and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

5. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?
protocol type
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address

6.

Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?
The clock rate must be 56000.
The usernames are misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.

7. Which three statements accurately describe a security policy? (Choose three.)
It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It defines a process for managing security violations.
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
The remote access policy is a component of the security policy that governs acceptable use of e-mail systems.
It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumventing security measures.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.

8. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Headquarters is connected through the Internet to branch office A and branch office B. Which WAN technology would be best suited to provide secure connectivity between headquarters and both branch offices?
ATM
VPN
ISDN
Frame Relay
broadband DSL

10. Which statement about a VPN is true?
VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.
DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.
VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.
Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.

11. A company is deciding which WAN connection type it should implement between its main office and branch offices. The company wants to use a cost-effective service that provides virtual circuits between each office. The company also wants to be able to transmit variable-length packets on these circuits. Which solution best meets these requirements?
ATM
HDLC
ISDN
Frame Relay

12. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports?
Company 1 only uses microfilters at branch locations.
Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has.
Company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1 is.
Company 2 shares the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares with.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?
DLCI 123
DLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the Orlando router

14.

Refer to the exhibit. This router is being configured to use SDM, but the SDM interface of the router cannot be accessed. What is the cause of the problem?
The VTY lines are not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The username and password are not configured correctly.

15. Which two devices can be used by teleworkers who need to connect to the company network across the PSTN for a few hours a day? (Choose two.)
router
CSU/DSU
DSL modem
cable modem
access server
dialup modem

16. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

17. What is the function of an intrusion detection system on a network?
to restrict access to only authorized users
to detect attacks against a network and send logs to a management console
to prevents attack against the network and provide active defense mechanisms
to detect and prevent most viruses and many Trojan horse applications from spreading in the network

18.

Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?
The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.
STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.
Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.
S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

19. When Frame Relay encapsulation is used, what feature provides flow control and exchanges information about the status of virtual circuits?
LCP
LMI
DLCI
Inverse ARP

20. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure DHCP and static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
Configure dynamic NAT with overload.

21. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)
reduced jitter
reduced costs
reduced latency
the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth
the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

22. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

23. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows “DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.3.17″. What is the problem?
The address 192.168.3.17 address is already in use by Fa0/0.
The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is configured incorrectly.
The ip helper-address command should be used on the Fa0/0 interface.
The 192.168.3.17 address has not been excluded from the 192Network pool.

24.

Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?
application
transport
network
data link
physical

25. What three questions can be answered using data gathered from a baseline on a new network? (Choose three.)
Are areas of the network experiencing high error rates?
Will the disaster recovery procedures work correctly?
What parts of the network have the highest volume?
Does the organization require more network technicians?
How does the network perform during peak periods?
Are there any devices working at top capacity?
What networks are the most susceptible to security attacks?

26. Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination?
extended
reflexive
standard
time-based

27.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to Web Server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from Web Server when received at R1?
10.1.1.2:80
10.1.1.2:1234
172.30.20.1:1234
172.30.20.1:3333

28. An administrator issues the command show interfaces s0/1/0 on a router that is configured for Frame Relay. Which console output may indicate an LMI mismatch?
Serial0/1/0 is administratively down
Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is up
Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is down
Serial0/1/0 is down, line protocol is down

29. A recently patched application server is experiencing response time problems. The network on which the application server is located has been experiencing occasional outages that the network team believes may be related to recent routing changes. Network and application teams have been notified to work on their respective issues. Which statement applies to this situation?
Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.
Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.
It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.

30.

Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.

31.

Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN will carry untagged traffic on FastEthernet 0/1?
VLAN 1
VLAN 2
VLAN 11
VLAN 12
VLAN 30
VLAN 999

32. What is an accurate description of CHAP when used with PPP on a serial connection between two routers?
A username and password are sent to the peer router, which replies with an accept or reject message.
A username and password are sent to the peer router. If these match the configuration in the peer, the peer in turn provides a username and password to the initiating router.
A challenge message is sent to the peer router, which responds with its username and a calculated value based on a shared secret. This value is then compared by the challenger to its own calculations.
An encrypted password is sent to the peer router, which decrypts it and compares it to a shared secret. If the decrypted passwords match, the peer sends the encrypted password back to the initiating router.

33. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?
local loop
DTE cable on router
demarcation point
demilitarized zone

34.

Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?
The commands are added to the end of the existing ACL.
The existing Managers ACL will be overwritten by the new ACL.
The router will output an error message and no changes will be made.
A duplicate Managers ACL will be created that will contain only the new commands.

35. Which statement is true about PAP in the authentication of a PPP session?
PAP uses a two-way handshake.
The password is unique and random.
PAP conducts periodic password challenges.
PAP uses MD5 hashing to keep the password secure.

36. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?
PPP with PAP
PPP with CHAP
HDLC with PAP
HDLC with CHAP

37. Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?
BE
DE
CIR
CBIR

38. Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?
Wi-Fi
WiMAX
satellite
Metro Ethernet

39.

Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured as a routing protocol on the network. Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 network should have full access to the web server that is connected to 192.168.3.0/24 but should not be allowed to telnet to router R3. Verifying the configuration, the network administrator realizes that users on network 192.168.1.0/24 can successfully telnet to the router. What should be done to remedy the problem?
The ACL 101 statements 10 and 20 should be reversed.
The ACL 101 should be applied on R3 VTY lines 0 4 in the inbound direction.
The ACL 101 should be applied on R3 VTY lines 0 4 in the outbound direction.
The ACL 101 should be applied on R3 Serial0/0/1 interface in the outbound direction.
The ACL 101 statement 10 should be changed to: permit ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any

40. What does an access control list determine when used with NAT on a Cisco router?
addresses that are to be translated
addresses that are assigned to a NAT pool
addresses that are allowed out of the router
addresses that are accessible from the inside network

41. Which IP address and wildcard mask combination can be used in an ACL statement to match the 172.16.0.0/30 network?
172.16.0.0 0.0.0.1
172.16.0.0 0.0.0.3
172.16.0.0 0.0.0.7
172.16.0.0 255.255.255.252

42. Which security solution has the responsibility of monitoring suspicious processes that are running on a host and that might indicate infection of Trojan horse applications?
antivirus application
operating system patches
intrusion prevention system
Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance

43.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to connect R1 remotely to make configuration changes. Based on the exhibited command output, what will be the result when attempting to connect to R1?
failure to connect due to Telnet not being enabled
failure to connect due to incomplete configuration for Telnet
a successful connection and ability to make configuration changes
a successful connection but inability to make configuration changes because of the absence of an enable secret password

44.

Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?
There is a Layer 2 loop.
The VTP domain names do not match.
Only one switch can be in server mode.
S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

45. A technician has been asked to run the Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on a customer router. What will be the result of this process?
Traffic is only accepted from and forwarded to SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
All traffic that enters the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.
The router is tested for any potential security problems and all recommended security-related configuration changes will be automatically applied.

46.

Refer to the exhibit. Which data transmission technology is being represented?
TDM
PPP
HDLC
SLIP

47. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which two suggestions should the administrator provide? (Choose two.)
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied inside the core layer.
Place standard ACLs as close to the destination as possible.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces require fewer router resources.
Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

48

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command would result in the output in the exhibit?
ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 172.16.76.3
ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 192.168.0.10
ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 10.1.200.254
ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 192.168.0.10
ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 172.16.76.3
ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 10.1.200.254

49. What are three important reasons to establish a network baseline? (Choose three.)
to determine the time it takes for the network to self recover from a failure
to determine which areas in the network are underutilized or overutilized
to determine the performance of the network during the normal hours of operation
to determine what thresholds should be set for the devices that need to be monitored
to determine the areas in the network which should not be included in the monitoring process
to determine the number of users whose access to network resources should be restricted

50. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)
There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
One access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
The term “inbound” refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

51. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows “up, line protocol up”. The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
network layer
data link layer
physical layer

52.

Refer to the exhibit. Router RT is not receiving routing updates from router RTA. What is causing the problem?
The ip rip authentication key-chain command specifies exam rather than test.
The name of the keystring is not the name of the neighboring router.
The key chains are given the same name on both routers.
The passive-interface command was issued for RTA.

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EWAN Skill Exam CCNA 4 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – EWAN Skill Exam – CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1 Basic configuration

1.1 Router and switch’ name as Topology, clock rate 64000,

1.2 Password: enable secret cisco and pass cisco on line vty 0 4 on all routers.

2 IP address.

Configure network address as topology.

ISP serial interfaces have configured IP address as topology.

Assign IP address for all router interface or subinterface follow :

1. Routers: R1_HQ: +1; R2_HQ: +2; R3_BR: +3,

2. Server: Mail +5, DHCP +6.

Example: in the subnetwork: 200.20.2.16/29,

- interface S0/0/1 of router R3_BR: 200.20.2.19/29, (19=16+3)

- interface S0/0/1 of router R1_HQ: 200.20.2.17/29, (17=16+1)

3 VTP, Vlan, Trunking, Inter-vlan Routing, STP

3.1 Trunking: Configured the links connect between switchs, the link connect switch to router as trunk links with encapsulation mode is dot1Q.

3.2 VTP: Configured switch mode as topology with the parameters:

HeadQuarter region Domain: HeadQuarterPass: HQP@ss Version:2 S21: server S22,S23: clients

BranchOffice region Domain: BranchOfficePass: BRP@ss Version:2 S31: server S32,S33: clients

3.3 Vlan: Creat the VLANs in both regions as follow:

VLAN 10: Tech  access port: f0/5 – f0/10

VLAN 20: Sale  access port: f0/11 – f0/15

VLAN 30: Admin access port: f0/16 – f0/20

Assign PC into the VLANs with the corresponding pcs’ name.

3.4 Inter-vlan Routing: Configured Inter-vlan Routing in routers R1 and R2 for all vlans using Subinterface ID as VLANsID, assign IP address for each sub-interface as 172.16.X.Y/24 in HeadQuarter and 10.0.X.Y/24 intBrachOffice (where X: VLAN ID, Y: router ID)

Example: Subinterface of f0/0 in Router R2_HQ for VLAN10. 172.16.10.2 (10: VLAN 10, 2: router R2).

4 Routing

4.1 The Frame-Relay switch had been configured correctly. Serial interfaces of router R1, R3 set the default encapsulation type. Specify OSPF point-to-point network by the ip ospf network point-to-point command.

4.2 Enable OSPF in all serial interfaces connect between R1and R3 using network directly-connected-subnet wildcard-mask area 0 command.

On R1-R3: OSPF over Frame relay using authentication with MD5 ( keyID:13 - keyString:cisco13)

- R3 propagate its network (10.0.X.0/24) into OSPF domain, using network directly-connected-subnet wildcard-mask area 0 command.

- Between R1, R2 use EIGRP 12 to share routing information using network wildcard-mask command

- In R1, Between EIGRP and OSPF areas configure redistribute where necessary with the parameters

• To EIGRP: bandwidth 1544, delay 1000ms, reliability 255, load 1, MTU 1500.
• To OSPF: use Keyword subnets to redistribute classless network.

4.3 Router R1 and R3 configure default route to ISP using exit interface, and propagate this route to its region

5 PAP/CHAP

Configure PPP PAP 1 way on routers R1 and R3 connect to ISP router, using username/password:

- BR/BRP for R3_BR.

- HQ/HQP for R1_HQ

Configure PPP PAP 2-way on router wan’link between R1 and R2 using this username/password

Router	send Username/Password
R1	R1_HQ/R1Pass
R2	R2_HQ/R2Pass

6 NAT

In Router R1, R3 configure NAT interface overload .	R1_HQ: configure to all users in HeadQuarterregion (172.16.0.0/16) network NAT overload to interface s0/0/0 using ACL 1.	R3_BR: configure to all users in BranchOfficeregion (10.0.0.0/8) network NAT overload to interface s0/0/0 using ACL 3.
Nat static	On R1_HQ: Publish the servers EMAIL using public ip add : 200.20.2.5

7 DHCP.

7.1 In Headquarter DHCP server assign IP address for users of VLAN 10, 20, 30 with the pool names.

- Tech for VLAN 10: 172.16.10.0/24, Max 50. Start IP address 172.16.10.50 using router interface as default gateway.

- Sale for VLAN 20: 172.16.20.0/24, Max 50. Start IP address 172.16.20.50 using router interface as default gateway.

- Admin for  VLAN 30: 172.16.30.0/24, Max 50. Start IP address 172.16.30.50 using router interface as default gateway.

Configure DHCP relay agent in router R2 (in subinterface mode).

7.2 In BranchOffice, configure DHCP on router R3_BR to assign ip address for all VLANs with the pool name:

- Tech for VLAN 10: 10.0.10.0/24 using router interface as default gateway.

- Sale for VLAN 20: 10.0.20.0/24 using router interface as default gateway.

- Admin for  VLAN 30: 10.0.30.0/24 using router interface as default gateway.

All PCs are assign IP address from DHCP Server.

8 Access control list:

Only Tech subnetwork‘ users ( VLAN 10) of each regions can telnet to its Routers. (configure vty line 0 4) using ACL 10.

- Only VLAN10’user of HeadQuarter region can telnet to routers R1, R2. VLAN10’user of BranchOffice region can telnet to routers R3.

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EWAN Chapter 7 CCNA 4 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – EWAN Chapter 7 – CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0) - Answers – 2011 – 2012

1.

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?
ip nat pool statement
access-list statement
ip nat inside is on the wrong interface
interface s0/0/2 should be a private IP address

2.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?
defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are allowed into the router
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

3. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?
32
48
64
128

4.

Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?
0
1
2
3
4

5.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
10.0.0.125
179.9.8.95
179.9.8.98
179.9.8.101
179.9.8.112

6.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP server service is not enabled.
The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

7. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
8
16
80
128

8. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.
Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.

9.

Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?
It will randomly generate a 64 bit interface ID.
It will assign an address from the pool of IPv6 private addresses to the interface.
It will assign only the registry prefix of the IPv6 Global Unicast address to the interface.
The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.

10. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses the word “overload” at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.
Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)
dynamic NAT
NAT with overloading
open port 20
open port 21
open port 23
NAT with port forwarding

12.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?
The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.
The DHCP server dynamically assigns the addresses.
The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for static assignment.
The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for dynamic assignment.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?
A user on the inside sees web traffic coming from 192.168.1.3 using port 8080.
The address 172.16.1.1 is translated into an address from the pool beginning with 192.168.1.3.
A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.
A user on the outside must address traffic to port 8080 to reach the address 172.16.1.1.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned or renewed by this DHCP server?
1
6
7
8
9

15. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
It increases routing performance.
It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.
It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.

16.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?
10.1.1.1
172.30.20.2
192.168.1.2
255.255.255.255

17.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)
Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
Traffic from the 209.165.200.0 network will be translated.
Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.
A pool of inside global IP addresses from the 10.1.1.0 network will be used for translation.
External users from the 209.165.200.0 network can reach private addresses on the 10.1.1.0 and 10.1.2.0 networks.

18. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?
NAT overload
static NAT
dynamic NAT
PAT

19.

Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
10.1.1.2
192.168.0.100
209.165.20.25
any address in the 10.1.1.0 network

20. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?
The supervisor wants to clear any confidential information that may be seen by the technician.
Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.
The translation table may be full and is unable to make new translations until space is available.
Clearing the translations causes the starting configuration to be reread and may correct translation problems that have occurred.

21. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?
Replace the devices on the public network with devices that support IPv6.
Configure RIPng on the border routers of each IPv6 island.
Configure the routers to take advantage of dual-stack technology.
Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.

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EWAN Chapter 8 CCNA 4 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – EWAN Chapter 8 – CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0) - Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7
192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15
192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15

2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
physical
data link
network
transport

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
A carrier detect signal is present.
Keepalives are being received successfully.
Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.
Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.
The reliability of this link is very low.
The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

4. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
transport layer
application layer

5. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
narrowing the scope
gathering symptoms from suspect devices
analyzing existing symptoms
determining ownership

6. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
physical
data link
network
transport

7. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.
Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper layers.

8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
bottom up
top down
divide and conquer
middle out

9. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
application
transport
network
data link
physical

10. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
physical
data link
network
application

11. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.
The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.
The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.
The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.
The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.
Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

13. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
incorrect encapsulation
incorrect STP configuration
incorrect ARP mapping
incorrect clock rate

14. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the application servers in the data center.
The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP showcommands to find a loop if routing is working normally.
Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.

15. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
baselining tool
knowledge base
protocol analyzer
cable tester

16. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
cable analyzer
network analyzer
protocol analyzer
knowledge base

17. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
cable types
connector types
interface identifiers
DLCI for virtual circuits
operating system versions

18. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
information about the network design
IP addressing allocation on the network
requirements about the service provider setup
requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic
expected performance under normal operating conditions

19. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
Determine fault.
Get to know the user to build trust.
Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.
Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

20. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
All layers
Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4
Layer 6 and Layer 7

Read more ...

EWAN Chapter 4 CCNA 4 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – EWAN Chapter 4 – CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0) - Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)

Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because company employees represent a low security risk.
Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has adequate backups of the web server, no further security measures are needed to protect the web server because no harm can come from it being hacked.
Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like TCP/IP can be used with their default settings because they have no inherent security weaknesses.
Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.

2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)
Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks.
Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not.
Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or port scans.
A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?
reconnaissance
access
DoS
worm
virus
Trojan horse

4.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the “ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco” statement in the configuration?
to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates
to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic
to enable SSH encryption of traffic
to create an IPsec tunnel

5. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It is developed by end users.
It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested.
It defines how to handle security incidents.
It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and keys.

6. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?
securing
monitoring
testing
improvement
reconnaissance

7. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)
provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers
describe how the firewall must be configured
document the resources to be protected
identify the security objectives of the organization
identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router

8. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)
By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.
DNS name queries require the ip directed-broadcast command to be enabled on the Ethernet interfaces of all routers.
Using the global configuration command ip name-server on one router enables the DNS services on all routers in the network.
The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?
SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command.
SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to alleviate the security issues.
SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router to reconfigure the services.
SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.

10. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?
DoS
DDoS
virus
access
reconnaissance

11. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)
It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
It offers the ability to instantly disable non-essential system processes and services.
It automatically configures the router to work with SDM.
It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network.
It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.

12. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?
SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers.
SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.
SDM should be used for complex router configurations.
SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software.

13. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The “mz” in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.
The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.
The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)
The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum.
The TFTP client on the router is corrupt.
The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
The TFTP server software has not been started.
There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software.

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)
ROM monitor
boot ROM
Cisco IOS
direct connection through the console port
network connection through the Ethernet port
network connection through the serial port

16. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL 192.168.10.1?
The password is sent in plain text.
A Telnet session is established with R1.
The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.
The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS images and configuration files.

17.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?
The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP server is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?
Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.
Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.
Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON.
Reconfigure the router using setup mode.

19. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?
Schedule antivirus scans.
Schedule antispyware scans .
Schedule training for all users.
Schedule operating systems updates.

20. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.
Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using theshow flash command.

21.

Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router.
The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols.
The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent security vulnerabilities.

22. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)
The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can be trusted to have secure default security settings.
Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is no way to counter an attack in progress without user intervention.
Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices.
Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

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