CCNA 2 v5.0 Routing Protocols Final Exam Answers 2014

CCNA 2 v5.0 Routing Protocols Final Exam Answers 2014

1
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.1.0 in the R2 routing table?

This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.*
This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.
This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area.
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2
Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?

the interface IPv6 link-local address*
the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address
the IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface
the 32-bit router ID
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3
What are two differences between the Cisco IOS 12 and IOS 15 versions? (Choose two.)

The IOS 12 version has commands that are not available in the 15 version.
The IOS version 15 license key is unique to each device, whereas the IOS version 12 license key is not device specific.*
Every Cisco ISR G2 platform router includes a universal image in the IOS 12 versions, but not the IOS 15 versions.
IOS version 12.4(20)T1 is a mainline release, whereas IOS version 15.1(1)T1 is a new feature release.
The IOS 12 version has two trains that occur simultaneously, whereas the IOS 15 version still has two trains, but the versions occur in a single sequential order.*
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4
Which ACE will permit a packet that originates from any network and is destined for a web server at 192.168.1.1?

access-list 101 permit tcp host 192.168.1.1 eq 80 any
access-list 101 permit tcp host 192.168.1.1 any eq 80
access-list 101 permit tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 80*
access-list 101 permit tcp any eq 80 host 192.168.1.1
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5
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the results of the OSPF election process of the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)

R2 will be elected DR.*
R3 will be elected BDR.*
The R4 FastEthernet 0/0 priority is 128.
The router ID on R2 is the loopback interface.
R1 will be elected BDR.
The R4 router ID is 172.16.1.1.*
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6
What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.*
Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.*
The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
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7
When are EIGRP update packets sent?

when learned routes age out
every 30 seconds via broadcast
every 5 seconds via multicast
only when necessary*
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8
Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which configuration must be entered?

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.63

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 255.255.255.248
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 255.255.255.248
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 255.255.255.192

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3(wirdcard not net mask)
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63********
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9
Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)

RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.
NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.
Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.*
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.*
ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.
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10
Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?

IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.*
IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.
IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols.
IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.
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11
Launch PTHide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then complete the task.

Which message is displayed on the website?

Correct!
Configured Correctly!
Good Job!
Well Done!*
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12
Refer to the exhibit.

What summary static address would be configured on R1 to advertise to R3?

192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/23
192.168.0.0/22*
192.168.0.0/21
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13
A network administrator issues the command R1(config)# license boot module c1900 technology-package securityk9 on a router. What is the effect of this command?

The features in the Security package are available immediately.
The Evaluation Right-To-Use license for the Security technology package is activated.*
The IOS will prompt the user to reboot the router.
The IOS will prompt the user to provide a UDI in order to activate the license.
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14
Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.*
Configuration of static routes is error-free.
Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.*
The path a static route uses to send data is known.*
Static routes scale well as the network grows.
No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.
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15
In an OSPFv2 configuration, what is the effect of entering the command network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0?

It tells the router which interface to turn on for the OSPF routing process.*
It changes the router ID of the router to 192.168.1.1.
It allows all 192.168.1.0 networks to be advertised.
It enables OSPF on all interfaces on the router.
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16
Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*
It has an administrative distance of 1.
It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
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17
Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

the autonomous system that is used
ISP selection
Scalability*
campus backbone architecture
speed of convergence*
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18
Which three statements are advantages of using automatic summarization? (Choose three.)

It improves reachability in discontiguous networks.
It ensures that traffic for multiple subnets uses one path through the internetwork.*
It decreases the number of entries in the routing table.*
It reduces the frequency of routing updates.*
It increases the size of routing updates.
It maximizes the number of routes in the routing table.

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19
Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose two.)

There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30.*
The network 192.168.10.8/30 can be reached through 192.168.11.1.*
The neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network.
Router R1 has two successors to the 172.16.3.0/24 network.
The reported distance to network 192.168.1.0/24 is 41024256.
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20
Refer to the exhibit. Which of the three Cisco IOS images shown will load into RAM?

The router selects an image depending on the value of the configuration register.*
The router selects an image depending on the boot system command in the configuration.
The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it contains the advipservicesk9 image.
The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it is the most recent IOS image.
The router selects the second Cisco IOS image because it is the smallest IOS image.
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21
Drag and drop

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22
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two.)

R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127*****

R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out******

R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255

R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any

R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in
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23
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator attempts to configure EIGRP for IPv6 on a router and receives the error message that is shown. Which command must be issued by the administrator before EIGRP for IPv6 can be configured?

no shutdown
ipv6 cef
ipv6 unicast-routing*
eigrp router-id 100.100.100.100
ipv6 eigrp 100
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24
Which packet types are implicitly permitted by IPv6 ACLs?

ping packets
IPv6 unicast packets
router solicitation packets
neighbor discovery packets*
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25

Fill in the blank.
The default administrative distance for a static route is 1.
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26
The security policy in a company specifies that employee workstations can initiate HTTP and HTTPS connections to outside websites and the return traffic is allowed. However, connections initiated from outside hosts are not allowed. Which parameter can be used in extended ACLs to meet this requirement?

Dscp
precedence
Eq
established*
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27
A router is participating in an OPSFv2 domain. What will always happen if the dead interval expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OPSF router?

OSPF will run a new DR/BDR election.
A new dead interval timer of 4 times the hello interval will start.
OSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database.*
SPF will run and determine which neighbor router is “down”.
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28
Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0*
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0
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29
Which two metric weights are set to one by default when costs in EIGRP are being calculated? (Choose two.)

k5
k3*
k6
k2
k1*
k4
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30
Which requirement should be checked before a network administrator performs an IOS image upgrade on a router?

There is sufficient space in flash memory.*
The old IOS image file has been deleted.
The FTP server is operational.
The desired IOS image file has been downloaded to the router.
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31
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has entered the command default-information originate in OSPFv3 global configuration mode on R1, but R2 is not receiving a default route. What is the problem?

R1 does not have a default route configured.*
The default-information originate command is only used for OSPFv2.
R1 and R2 are on different subnets.
OSPFv3 is not running on R2.
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32
Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.*
The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.*
The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.
The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.
The link interface subnet masks must match.*
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33
Refer to the exhibit. What two types of devices are connected to R1? (Choose two.)

Hub
Repeater
Switch*
Source Route Bridge
Router*
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34
What type of static route is created when the next-hop IP address and exit interface are specified?

recursive static route
floating static route
directly connected static route
fully specified static route*
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35
What is the reason for a network engineer to alter the default reference bandwidth parameter when configuring OSPF?

to increase the speed of the link
to more accurately reflect the cost of links greater than 100 Mb/s*
to enable the link for OSPF routing
to force that specific link to be used in the destination route
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36
Refer to the exhibit. Which command will properly configure an IPv6 static route on R2 that will allow traffic from PC2 to reach PC1 without any recursive lookups by router R2?

R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/0*
R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:32::1
R2(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:32::1
R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/1
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37
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?

default route
child route
ultimate route
level 1 parent route*
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38
When does an OSPF router become an ABR?

when the router has an OSPF priority of 0
when the router has interfaces in different areas*
when the router has the highest router ID
when the router is configured as an ABR by the network administrator
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39
Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1*
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
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40
How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?

the lowest MAC address on an active interface
the highest IPv4 address on an active interface*
the highest IPv6 address on an active interface
the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface
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41
Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?

Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.
Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0.0.*
Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.
Add an administrative distance of 254.
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42
Refer to the exhibit. A company has migrated from single area OSPF to multiarea. However, none of the users from network 192.168.1.0/24 in the new area can be reached by anyone in the Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is the problem?

The router has not established any adjacencies with other OSPF routers.
The OSPF routing process is inactive.
There are no interarea routes in the routing table for network 192.168.1.0.*
The link to the new area is down.
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43
Which two OSPFv3 statements are true? (Choose two.)

The router ID is configured using an IPv4 address.*
The router ospf priority priority command is issued under the router configuration mode.
The router-id router-id command is issued in interface configuration mode.
The multicast address FF02::6 is used to forward packets to the OSPF DR and BDR.*
OSPF networks are configured under router configuration mode.
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44
Refer to the exhibit. The R1 router is participating in a multiarea OSPF network. What can the network administrator determine from the output?

The router does not have a default gateway.
The routing protocol configuration mode network commands have been entered on this router and adjacent routers.*
The correct wildcard masks have not been entered properly as part of the network commands entered on this router.
The router has been configured to not participate in DR/BDR elections on interfaces Serial 0/0/0 and Serial 0/01.
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45

A Identifies how the network was learned by the router.
B Identifies the destination network.
C Identifies the administrative distance (trustworthiness) of the route source.
D Identifies the metric to reach the remote network.
E Identifies the next hop IP address to reach the remote network.
F Identifies the elapsed time since discovered.
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46
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is supported by the output?

A default route is being learned through an external process.*
Summarization of routes has been manually configured.
The route to 192.168.1.1 represents the configuration of a loopback interface.
A static default route has been manually configured on this router.
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47
Which two commands will configure OSPFv2 MD5 authentication on a router interface? (Choose two.)

router ospf 10
default-information originate
ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 CISCO-ABC*
ip ospf priority 255
ip ospf authentication message-digest*
area 0 authentication message-digest
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48
What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?

They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.
They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.*
They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.
They request more information about their databases.
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49
The following network assignments have been made in a company:
10.50.0.0/28
10.50.0.128/26
10.50.0.40/29

A company branch office has recently added an IP-based video surveillance system that requires a server and 20 cameras to be on a separate network. Which network number and mask could be used for this network if the branch office is using an overall block of addresses of 10.50.0.0/24?

10.50.0.32/28
10.50.0.48/27*
10.50.0.96/28
10.50.0.32/27
10.50.0.64/27
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50
Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)

the link router interface IP address and subnet mask*
the link bandwidth
the link next-hop IP address
the type of network link*
the cost of that link*
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51
What are three characteristics of the Cisco IOS Software Release 12.4T train? (Choose three.)

It has extended maintenance new feature releases approximately every 16 to 20 months.
It is updated with new features and hardware support.*
It has a number of embedded technology packages.*
It receives regular software fixes that are synchronized with the 12.4 Mainline train.*
It is derived from the Cisco IOS Software Release 12.4 Mainline train.
It requires the activation of a license.
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52
What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?

Cost equals bandwidth.
Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.*
A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
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53
Launch PTHide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which message was displayed on the web server?

Work done!
You’ve made it!*
Wonderful work!
Congratulations!

Answer:
just do “no auto-summary” to the Routers.
router eigrp 100
no auto-summary
do show run (וnd see it chance to no auto-summary)
try to surff with PC1 – http://www.webserver.com
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54
When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

when a router has less than five active interfaces
when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM
when a network contains discontiguous network addresses*
when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
when a router has more than three active interfaces
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55
What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

It determines the best path to send packets.*
It connects multiple IP networks.*
It manages the VLAN database.
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain.
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56 Drag and drop

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57
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures an ACL on the router. Which statement describes the result of the configuration?

A Telnet connection is allowed from a workstation with IP 192.168.25.18 to a device with IP 172.16.45.16.
An SSH connection is allowed from a workstation with IP 172.16.45.16 to a device with IP 192.168.25.18.
An SSH connection is allowed from a workstation with IP 192.168.25.18 to a device with IP 172.16.45.16.*
A Telnet connection is allowed from a workstation with IP 172.16.45.16 to a device with IP 192.168.25.18.

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58
Refer to the exhibit. What are two things that are different about the highlighted E2 routes in the routing table? (Choose two.)

These routes were learned using Type 5 LSAs.*
These routes are networks contained to other routers in a different OSPF area.
These routes can be used as backup default routes.
These routes are used to reach networks outside the OSPF multiarea network.*
These routes have an administrative distance of 20.
These routes are networks connected to other routers in the same OSPF area.
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59
Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?

They can be created with a number but not with a name.
They are configured in the interface configuration mode.
They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.*
They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.
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60
Which three addresses are EIGRP multicast addresses? (Choose three.)

224.0.0.10*
224.0.0.9
01-00-5E-00-00-0A*
01-00-5E-00-00-10
FF02::9
FF02::A*

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CCNA 4 R&S Final Exam Connecting Networks v5.0 2014

CCNA 4 Final Exam – Connecting Networks (Version 5.0)

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1 Why is it useful categorize networks by size when discussing network design?

Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many additional layers will be added to the three-tier hierarchical network design.

Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many multilayer switches will be necessary at the core layer.

A high-level redundancy at the access layer may be better implemented if the number of connected devices is know.

The complexity of networking infrastructure will vary according to the number of connected devices.*

2 Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)

Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.
NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.
With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.
LCP tests the quality of the link.*
LCP manages compression on the link.*

3 What is a disadvantage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network?

fixed capacity
higher latency*
less flexibility
higher cost

4 Which statement describes a characteristic of dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)?

it assigns incoming electrical signals to specific frequencies.
it can be used in long-range communications, like connections between ISPs.*
it enables bidirectional communications over one pair of copper cables.
it supports the SONET standard, but not the SDH standard.

5

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF network. The 10.10.0.0/16 network is not showing up in the routing table of Router1. What is the probable cause of this problem?

The OSPF process is configured incorrectly on Router1.
There is an incorrect wildcard mask statement for network 10.10.0.0/16 on Router2.*
The OSPF process is not running on Router2.
The serial interface on Router2 is down.

6 The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in the sales department must use a VPN to connect to the corporate network to access the sales data when they travel to meet customers. What component is needed by the sales staff to establish a remote VPN connection?

VPN appliance
VPN concentrator
VPN client software*
VPN gateway

7 A network administrator is troubleshooting the dynamic NAT that is configured on router R2. Which command can the administrator use to see the total number of active NAT translations and the number of addresses that are allocated from the NAT pool?

R2# show ip nat translations
R2# clear ip nat translation
R2# show running-config
R2# show ip nat statistics*

8 Which three parts of a Frame Relay Layer 2 PDU are used for congestion control? (Choose three.)

the FECN bit*
the BECN bit*
the C/R bit
the 10-bit DLCI
the Extended Address field
the DE bit*

9 Which two statements correctly describe asymmetric encryption used with an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)

The same encryption keys must be manually configured on each device.
Public key encryption is a type of asymmetric encryption.*
Encryption and decryption use a different key.*
A shared secret key is used to perform encryption and descryption.
AES is an example of an asymmetric encryption protocol.

10 Which WAN technology can serve as the underlying network to carry multiple types of network traffic such as IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL?

MPLS*
ISDN
Ethernet WAN
Frame Relay

11 Drag and droop

Place the options in the following order: 
PAP Characteristics
uses two-way handshake
single challenge
weak authentication
clear text passwords

CHAP Characteristics
uses three-way handshake
repeated challenges
strong authentication
encrypted passwords

12 Which command can be used to check the information about congestion on a Frame Relay link?

show frame-relay lmi
show interfaces
show frame-relay pvc*
show frame-relay map

13 Which two statements describe remote access VPNs? (Choose two.)

Client software is usually required to be able to access the network.*
Remote access VPNs are used to connect entire networks, such as a branch office to headquarters.
Remote access VPNs support the needs of telecommuters and mobile users.*
A leased line is required to implement remote access VPNs.
End users are not aware that VPNs exists.

14

Refer to the exhibit. Which three steps are required to configure Multilik PPP on the HQ router? (Choose three.)

Bind the multilink bundle to the Fast Ethernet interface.
Enable PPP encapsulation on the multilink interface.
Assign the serial interfaces to the multilink bundle.*
Create and configure the multilink interface.*
Assign the Fast Ethernet interface to the multilink bundle
Enable PPP encapsulation on the serial interfaces.*

15 What are two examples of network problems that are found at the data link layer? (Choose two.)

incorrect interface clock rates
late collisions and jabber
framing errors*
electromagnetic interface
encapsulation errors*

16 What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?

CHAP
ADSL
PPPoE*
LTE

17 What is required for a host to use an SSL VPN to connect to a remote network device?

The host must be connected to wired network.
A site-to-site VPN must be preconfigured.
A web browser must be installed on the host.*
VPN client software must be installed.

18

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented the configuration in the displayed output. What is missing from the configuration that would be preventing OSPF routing updates from passing to the Frame Relay service provider?

The command to disable split horizon has not been issued.
The passive-interface command has not been issued on interface serial 0/1/0
The directly connected neighbor should have been identified by using static mapping.
The broadcast keyword has not been issued.*

19

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring NAT to provide Internet access to the inside network. After the configurtation is completed, users are unable to access the internet. What is the cause of the problem?

The inside and outside interfaces are backwards.
The ACL is referencing the wrong network address.
The NAT inside source command is referring to the wrong ACL.*
The NAT pool is using an invalid address range.

20 A company connects to one ISP via multiple connections. What is the name given to this type of connection?

multihomed
single-homed
dual-multihomed
dual-homed*

21

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*
The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 miliseconds.
This host does not have a default gateway configured.
The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*

22 A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:
R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70

What is the effect of these commands?

The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.
The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.*
The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.
The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.

23 Which IEEE standard defines the WiMax technology?

802.5
802.11
802.16*
802.3

24 Which three flows associated with consumer applications are supported by NetFlow collectors? (Choose three.)

accounting*
network monitoring*
error correction
bandwidth regulation
quality of service
billing*

25

Refer to the exhibit. What kind of NAT is being configured on R1?

NAT overload
dynamic NAT
port forwarding*
PAT

26

Place the options in the following order:

Outside global

- not scored -

Outside local

Inside global

- not scored -

Inside local

27 What is the default location for Cisco routers and switches to send critical logging events?

syslog server
virtual terminal
console port*
auxiliary port

28 In the data gathering process, which type of device will listen for traffic, but only gather traffic statistics?

SNMP agent
NetFlow collector*
syslog server
NMS

29 What is a characteristic of Frame Relay that allows customer data transmissions to dynamically “burst” over their CIR for short periods of time?

The combination of LMI status messages and Inverse ARP messages enables the CIR to be exceeded.
The physical circuits of the Frame Relay network are shared between subscribers and there may be times when unused bandwidth is available.*
BECN and FECN messages notify the router that the CIR can be exceeded.
Bursting is enabled by the configuration of multiple subinterfaces on one physical interface.

30 Which SNMP message type informs the network management system (NMS) immediately of certain specified events?

GET response
SET request
GET request
Trap*

31 Which statement is a characteristic of SNMP MIBs?

The SNMP agent uses the SNMP manager to access information within the MIB.
The MIB structure for a given device includes only variables that are specific to that device or vendor.
The MIB organizes variables in a flat manner.
The NMS must have access to the MIB in order for SNMP to operate properly.*

32 What benefit does NAT64 provide?

It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.*
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure form hosts on public IPv4 networks.
It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

33 What is the expected behavior of an ADSL service?

The user can select the upload and download rates based on need.
The download and upload rates are the same.
The upload rate is faster than the download rate.
The download rate is faster than the upload rate.*

34 The DLCI number assigned to a Frame Relay circuit is to be manually added on a point-to-point link. Which three subinterface commands could be used to complete the configuration? (Choose three.)

frame-relay map ip ip-address dlci
frame-relay map ip ip-address dlci broadcast
no shutdown
ip address ip-address mask*
encapsulation farme-relay
bandwidth kilobits*
frame-relay interface dlci dlci*

35 A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necesary information? (Choose three.)

tracert
telnet
ping*
netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor
nslookup*
arp -a
ipconfig*

36

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 was configured by a network administrator to use SNMP version 2. The following commands were issued:

R1(config)# snmp-server community batonaug ro SNMP_ACL
R1(config)# snmp-server contact Wayne World
R1(config)# snmp-server host 192.168.1.3 version 2c batonaug
R1(config)# ip access-list standard SNMP_ACL
R1(config-std-nacl)# permit 192.168.10.3

Why is the administrator not able to get any information from R1?

The snmp-server community command needs to include the rw keyword.
The snmp-server location command is missing.
There is a problem with the ACL configuration.*
The snmp-server enable traps command is missing.

37 Which broadband technology would be best for a small office that requires fast upstream connections?

DSL
Cable
fiber-to-the-home*
WiMax

38

Refer to the exhibit. The inside local IP address of PC-A is 192.168.0.200. What will be the inside global address of packets from PC-A after they are translated by R1?

192.168.0.1
172.16.0.1
209.165.200.225*
10.0.0.1
192.168.0.200

39 What is a type of VPN that is generally transparent to the end user?

remote access
public
site-to-site*
private

40 Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO*
uses RF signal transmission
users are on a shared medium
local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)*
physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS

41

Refer to the exhibit. Which three events will occur as a result of the configuration shown on R1? (Choose three.)

Only traffic that originates from the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface will be monitored.*
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 or lower.*
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will use 192.168.1.5 as the destination IP address.*
The syslog messages will contain the IP address the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface.
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 and higher.
For multiple occurrences of the same error, only the first three messages will be sent to the server.

42 Which two characteristics describe time-division multiplexing? (Choose two.)

Traffic is allocated bandwidth across a single wire based on preassigned time slots.*
Bandwidth is allocated to channels based on whether a station has data to transmit.
Encoding technology provides high data throughput in a minimum RF spectrum by supporting parallel data transmission.
Data capacity across a single link increases as bits from multiple sources are transmitted using interleaved slices of time.*
Depending on the configured layer 2 protocol, data is transmitted across two or more channels via the use of time slots.

43 Which two specialized troubleshooting tools can monitor the amount of traffic that passes through a switch? (Choose two.)

TDR
DTX cable analyzer
NAM*
digital multimeter
portable network analyzer*

44 Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?

when its employees become distributed across many branch locations*
when the enterprise decides to secure its corporate LAN
when the network will span multiple buildings
when the number of employees exceeds the capacity of the LAN

45 Which algorithm is considered insecure for use in IPsec encryption?

RSA
3DES*
SHA-1
AES

46 What is one advantage to designing networks in bulding block fashion for large companies?

fewer required physical resources
increased network access time
coarse security control
failure isolation*

47 Which two technologies are implemented by organizations to support teleworker remote connections? (Choose two.)

CMTS
VPN*
CDMA
IPsec*
DOCSIS

48 A branch office uses a leased line to connect to the corporate network. The lead network engineer confirms connectivity between users in the branch office, but none of the users can access corporate headquarters. System logs indicate that nothing has changed in the branch office network. What should the engineer consider next to resolve this network outage?

The network technician for the branch office should troubleshoot the switched infrastructure.
The server administrator in the branch office should reconfigured the DHCP server.
The service provider for the branch office should troubleshoot the issue starting from the point of demarcation.*
The system administartor in the branch office should reconfigure the default gateway on the user PCs.

49

Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is configured on the physical interface of the CORP router?

10.1.1.1
209.165.202.134
10.1.1.2
209.165.202.133*

50 How many 64 kb/s voice channels are combined to produce a T1 line?

8
32
24*
16

51 Which network module maintains the resources that employees, partners, and customers rely on to effectively create, colaborate, and interact with information?

services
access-distribution
data-center*
enterprise edge

52 Which broadband solution is appropriate for a home user who needs a wired connection not limited by distance?

ADSL
cable*
DSL
WiMax

53 A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP can only supply five public IP addresses for this network. What technology can the administrator use to accomplish this task?

classless interdomain routing
variable length subnet masks
classful subnetting
port-based Network Address Translation*

54 What is the purpose of a message hash in a VPN connection?

It ensures that the data is coming from the correct source.
It ensures that the data cannot be duplicated and replayed to the destination.
It ensures that the data has not changed while in transit.*
It ensures that the data cannot be read in plain text.

55 Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

DNS
Telnet
HTTP
ICMP
IPsec*

56 Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?

network configuration files
syslog records and messages
debug output and packet captures
the network performance baseline*

57 What are three benefits of using Frame Relay for WAN connectivity? (Choose three.)

mature technology*
QoS support using the IP precedence field
integrated encryption
one physical interface that can be used for several circuits*
reasonable cost*
seamless direct connectivity to an Ethernet LAN

58 What type of information is collected by Cisco NetFlow?

interface errors
traffic statistics*
memory usage
CPU usage

59 Which technology requires the use of PPPoE to provide PPP connections to customers?

dialup ISDN modem
T1
DSL*
dialup analog modem

60 Under which two categories of WAN connections does Frame Relay fit? (Choose two.)

packet-switched*
private infrastructure*
public infrastructure
Internet
dedicated

61 What are three characteristics of the generic routing encapsulation (GRE) protocol? (Choose three.)

GRE tunnels support multicast traffic.*
GRE creates additional overload for packets that are traveling through the VPN.*
GRE uses AES for encryption unless otherwise specified
By default, GRE does not include any flow control mechanisms.*
Developed by the IETF, GRE is a secure tunneling protocol that was designed for Cisco routers.
GRE provides encapsulation for a single protocol type that is traveling through the VPN.

62 An intercity bus company wants to offer constat Internet connectivity to the users traveling on the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

cellular*
dedicated
private infrastructure
circuit-switched
public infrastructure*

63 What is used as the default event logging destination for Cisco routers and switches?

syslog server
terminal line
workstation
console line*

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