ROUTE Chapter 8 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – ROUTE Chapter 8 – CCNP ROUTE: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. Which method can be used to route traffic through a 6to4 automatic tunnel?

IPv6 static route
IPv4 static route
OSPFv2
OSPFv3
RIPv2
RIPng

2. What is an advantage of the NAT-PT technique for transitioning between IPv4 and IPv6?
All mappings are static.
Globally routable IPv4 addressing is not required.
DNS is not required.
No configuration is required on end nodes.

3. How do IPv6 enabled routers handle packet fragmentation?
IPv6 routers do not perform packet fragmentation. OSPFv3 has a mechanism for determining the optimal packet size and dynamically adjusting the packet size.
IPv6 routers do not perform packet fragmentation. CDP is used to discover the correct packet size for any given traffic flow. The correct packet size is unique for each traffic flow.
IPv6 routers perform packet fragmentation. CDP is used to determine which packets need to be fragmented for any given traffic flow.
IPv6 routers perform packet fragmentation. OSPFv3 has a mechanism for fragmenting packets so that they are the optimal size.
IPv6 routers do not perform packet fragmentation. A discovery process is used to determine the optimum maximum transmission unit (MTU) to use during a given session.
IPv6 routers perform packet fragmentation. IPv6 built-in QoS mechanisms automatically adjust the packet fragmentation for a given session.

4.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of this configuration?
to protect the IPv6 traffic from being corrupted by the IPv4 traffic
to transport IPv6 traffic through an IPv4 network
to allow the IPv6 traffic to use IPv4 addresses
to encrypt the IPv6 traffic within IPv4

5.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured routers R1 and R2 for EIGRP IPv6 as shown. After completing the configurations and verifying that the interfaces are up, the administrator notes that the routers have not formed an EIGRP adjacency. What needs to be done to allow the neighboring routers to establish adjacency?
IPv6 multicast routing must be enabled.
The EIGRP routing process must be started.
The router ID for IPv6 EIGRP must be a 128 bit number.
An IPv6 address must be configured on the serial interfaces.

6. Which two statements are correct about solicited-node multicasts? (Choose two.)
They are used for address resolution of an IPv4 address to an IPv6 address.
They are used for address resolution of an IPv6 address to a MAC address on a LAN segment.
They are used for address resolution of an IPv4 address to an IPv6 address on a LAN segment.
They resolve the problem of two or more devices having the same MAC address.
They resolve the problem of two or more devices having the same link-local address.
They are used in Duplicate Address Detection (DAD) to detect duplicate IPv6 addresses.

7. Which of these addresses is the shortest abbreviation for the IP address:
3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB : 0000 : 0000 : 0057?
3FFE : 1044 :: AB :: 57
3FFE : 1044 :: 00AB :: 0057
3FFE : 1044 : 0 : 0 : AB :: 57
3FFE : 1044 : 0 : 0 : 00AB :: 0057
3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB :: 57
3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB :: 0057

8. Stateless autoconfiguration enables which IPv6 feature?
use of a thick-client approach
DHCP-lite
capability of devices to connect to the network by the use of DHCP servers
capability of devices to connect to the network without any configuration or without the use of a DHCP server
use of a thin-client approach
capability of devices to automatically assign themselves a hybrid IPv4 / IPv6 address

9.
Refer to the exhibit. Host 1 sends a router solicitation ICMP message that requests auto configuration from router R1. Which destination IPv6 address will be used by R1 to send the ICMP router advertisement message that contains the IPv6 configuration options?
multicast address FF02::2 for all routers
router R1 link-local address FE80::2/10
DHCP servers/relay agent address FF02::C
host 1 link-local address FE80::1 or multicast address FF02::1 for all nodes

10. Which two IPv6-specific extensions are incorporated into MBGP? (Choose two.)
an identifier for the IPv6 address family
all routers IPv6 multicast address
a global IPv6 address with the NEXT_HOP attribute
a 128-bit router ID
MPLS as a passenger protocol

11.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?
directly attached static route
recursive static route
fully specified static route
floating static route

12. After the activation of IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and the configuration of IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
Enter the ipv6 rip name enable command on each IPv6 RIPng interface.
Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network commands to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.

13.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true of the NAT-PT configurations on router R1? (Choose two.)
Router R1 will advertise the 1144::/96 prefix to router R2.
The ip nat outside command is required on interface Fa0/0.
Router R3 will learn about the 14::/64 network from router R1.
NAT-PT is enabled on both Fast Ethernet interfaces of router R1.
To reach the App_Server, packets from host A should be forwarded to router R1 with a destination IP of 172.16.23.100.

14. What is the IPv6 prefix used for 6to4 automatic tunnels?
0000
2002
3450
FEC0

15. Which two IPv4 to IPv6 transition techniques manage the interconnection of IPv6 domains? (Choose two.)
trunking
dual stack
encapsulation
tunneling
translation

16.
Refer to the exhibit. The network is using OSPFv3 as the routing protocol. Servers A, B, and C offer the same application services. Which type of IPv6 address would be used so that the router will send the packet to the server with the lowest cost OSPF route?
anycast
multicast
link local
unique local
global unicast

17.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wishes to apply a routing policy on router WestR1 that will forward web traffic to the ISP while preserving the normal routing to the district office. However, when the configuration displayed in the exhibit is applied, the web traffic is still flowing to the district office. What configuration change should be made to the WestR1 router?
The access list must be rewritten to properly match web traffic.
The route map should be applied to Gi 0/0 interface.
The access group should be applied to S0/0/0 outbound.
The route map name should match the access list name.

18.
Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the connected route entry?
Router1 is configured for NAT-PT.
The interface is part of an 6to4 tunnel.
Router1 is participating in an ISATAP tunnel.
The interface is part of an OSPF not-so-stubby area.

19.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the command ipv6 ospf cost 20?
The Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) will not use this interface unless all other interfaces go down.
The cost number is used in the designated router election.
OSPFv3 will prefer this link over links with a lower cost.
The IPv6 priority must be configured before this command is entered.
The cost of sending a packet on this interface, expressed in the link state metric, is 20.

20.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configured router R1 with two instances of RIPng. Based on the information in the exhibit, what must the administrator do next in order to exchange routes between both RIPng instances?
The clear ip route * command must be issued on router R1.
The clear ipv6 route * command must be issued on router R1.
The port 1013 multicast-group multicast-address command must be issued under the R1R2 instance with a different multicast address than FF02::9.
The port port-# multicast-group FF02::9 command must be issued under the R1R2 instance with a different port number than 1013.
The redistribute connected command must be applied under the R1R2 and R1R3 RIPng instances.
The redistribute rip R1R2 command must be issued under the R1R3 RIPng instance and the redistribute rip R1R3 command must be issued under the R1R2 RIPng instance.

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ROUTE Chapter 7 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% - Take Assessment – ROUTE Chapter 7 – CCNP ROUTE: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a GRE tunnel between R1 and R2 as shown. After completing the tunnel configurations, the administrator notices that the tunnel interfaces on both routers are down. All other interfaces are up and the pings through the ISP to the serial interface of each router are successful. What is the cause of the problem?
Tunnel source configurations are incorrect.
Tunnel destination configurations are incorrect.
The MTU size has not been increased to 1492.
GRE IP encapsulation has not been configured.

2. Which three protocols are involved in the establishment of an IPsec VPN tunnel? (Choose three.)
Tunnel Profile (TCP port 604)
Authentication Header (protocol 51)
Generic Routing Encapsulation (protocol 47)
Encapsulating Security Protocol (protocol 50)
Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (TCP port 500)
Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (UDP port 500)

3.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial configuration that is shown, which static route would be the primary default path?
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.20.2 40
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.68.6.1 50
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 202.16.20.2 60
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 212.68.6.1 70

4. Which is a clientless VPN solution for mobile workers?
GRE
IPsec
SSH
SSL

5. Which two statements are correct about IPsec crypto maps? (Choose two.)
The crypto map defines the IPsec tunnel endpoint or peer.
Packets that do not meet the criteria as specified in the crypto map are dropped.
The crypto map is applied to the outbound interface that the router is peering with.
A crypto map is used to negotiate and exchange authentication and encryption parameters with its peer.
The crypto map is applied to the inbound interface that receives the packets before being transmitted over the VPN tunnel.

6. What is a limitation of IPsec by design?
IPsec only forwards unicast traffic.
IPsec does not support encryption for traffic over a GRE tunnel.
IPsec forwards unicast and multicast traffic, but not broadcast traffic.
IPsec tunneling does not support the encapsulation of RFC 1918 addresses.

7.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the exhibited static routes? (Choose two.)
If a route to 10.0.0.0/8 is received via RIP, R1 will prefer the dynamic route over both configured static routes.
If no dynamic route to 10.0.0.0/8 exists, both static routes will appear in the R1 routing table.
If no dynamic route to 10.0.0.0/8 exists, R1 will use 2.2.2.2 as the next hop because it has a higher preference.
If a route to 10.0.0.0/8 is received via RIP, both static routes will appear in the routing table.
The static route to 10.0.0.0/8 via 1.1.1.1 will be preferred to the route via 2.2.2.2.

8.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring NAT on router Remote. The configuration should allow users on network 172.16.16.0/21 to access Internet sites as well as resources on the HQ LAN network 172.16.0.0/21 through the VPN tunnel. How should the administrator configure access list 101 to accomplish this task?
Remote(config)# access-list 101 deny 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 172.16.0.0 0.0.7.255
Remote(config)# access-list 101 permit ip 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 any

Remote(config)# access-list 101 permit ip 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 any
Remote(config)# access-list 101 deny 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 172.16.0.0 0.0.7.255

Remote(config)# access-list 101 deny 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 any
Remote(config)# access-list 101 permit ip 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 any

Remote(config)# access-list 101 deny 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 209.165.202.129 0.0.0.3
Remote(config)# access-list 101 permit ip 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 any

Remote(config)# access-list 101 permit ip 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 any
Remote(config)# access-list 101 deny 172.16.0.0 0.0.7.255 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255

9. How is NAT tuned to handle traffic that is sent through a VPN tunnel between a mobile worker and internal corporate resources?
Translation is allowed by a permit access list statement or route map.
Translation is allowed by a deny access list statement or route map.
Traffic should bypass translation with a permit access list statement or route-map.
Traffic should bypass translation with a deny access list statement or route-map.

10. Branch office network design faces several challenges. Which of these challenges has the goal of obtaining centralized control of network security and management?
bandwidth and network requirements
consolidated data centers
deployment plan
management costs
mobility

11. Which three statements would help an end user develop a better understanding of DSL technology? (Choose three.)
ADSL typically has a higher download bandwidth than available upload bandwidth.
All varieties of DSL provide the same bandwidth, although they use different technologies to achieve upload and download.
DSL data subscribers are connected to a network segment, all sharing the upstream and downstream bandwidth.
DSL is available in any location that has a telephone.
DSL speeds can exceed the speeds available with a typical T1 line.
Transfer rates vary by the length of the local loop.

12. What are three characteristics of broadband access? (Choose three.)
always on
built-in security
enhanced voice and video services
guaranteed quality of service (QoS)
high-speed access
wide area of coverage

13. Which three items can be specified by ISAKMP policy parameters? (Choose three.)
the hashing method to be used
the encryption method to be used
the encapsulation method to be used
the authentication method to be used
the ACL that is used to identify interesting traffic
the amount of time the crypto interface should be active before being renegotiated

14.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tuning IPsec to encapsulate the GRE tunnel between R1 and R2. Assuming all other IPsec configurations are correct, which two crypto map access lists will complete this task? (Choose two.)
R1(config-ext-nacl)# permit gre host 172.16.248.1 host 172.16.248.2
R1(config-ext-nacl)# permit gre host 209.165.202.129 host 64.100.32.1
R1(config-ext-nacl)# permit gre host 64.100.32.1 host 209.165.202.129
R2(config-ext-nacl)# permit gre host 172.16.248.2 host 172.16.248.1
R2(config-ext-nacl)# permit gre host 209.165.202.129 host 64.100.32.1
R2(config-ext-nacl)# permit gre host 64.100.32.1 host 209.165.202.129

15. Which statement is true about the deployment of Context-Based Access Control (CBAC) and Zone-Based Firewall (ZBF)?
They cannot be deployed on the same router.
They can be deployed on the same router but not on the same interface.
They can be deployed on the same interface but not in the same direction.
They can be deployed on the same interface but cannot filter the same protocol.

16. Which two solutions can a hybrid fiber cable service provider apply when there is constant congestion on the line? (Choose two.)
Allocate less bandwidth to affected customers.
Allocate another downstream channel.
Allocate another upstream channel.
Run fiber deeper into the neighborhood.
Run fiber to each home.

17. Which is a Cisco IOS firewall solution that relies on access control lists?
Cisco Easy VPN server
Cisco Security Manager
Zone-Based Firewall (ZBF)
Context-Based Access Control (CBAC)

18. In the routing design for a branch office, which area will have an affect on convergence, load balancing, and scalability?
connectivity technologies
mobility requirements
resiliency
routing protocols
service mix
security and compliance

19. Which IPsec service verifies that the data was not altered during transmission?
authorization
confidentiality
encapsulation
encryption
integrity

20. Which two UDP ports must be permitted inbound through the Internet-facing interface on a firewall to establish an IPsec tunnel and NAT-T? (Choose two.)
22
50
51
500
4500

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ROUTE Chapter 5 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% - Take Assessment – ROUTE Chapter 5 – CCNP ROUTE: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. Routing protocol convergence time would be an example of which path control consideration?

adaptability
availability
performance
predictability
resiliency

2. A BGP routing policy has been created using route maps. The command route-map TEST permit 10 is part of the configuration. What does the argument 10 indicate?
It identifies the access list number to be used by the route map statement.
It identifies the position of the route map in relation to other instances.
It indicates the local preference to be set for routes that match the route map.
It indicates the metric to be set for routes that match the route map.
It specifies the route map to be used on autonomous system 10.

3.
Refer to the exhibit. What would be the RIP routing metric for the subnets of the 172.16.0.0/16 network on the R2 router after the configuration in the exhibit was applied to the R1 router?
1
2
3
4
5

4.
Refer to the exhibit. The routing policy for router R1 states that traffic from the 192.168.1.0 LAN network is to be routed to ISP-1 and traffic from the 172.16.1.0 LAN network is to be routed to ISP-2. However, the network administrator notices that a host at IP address 172.16.1.10 is being routed out Serial0/0/0. What is the cause of the problem?
The route map ISP-1 should be applied to Serial0/0/0.
The route map ISP-2 should be applied to FastEthernet0/1.
The route maps are applied to opposite interfaces.
There is an incorrect access list 1 statement.
There is an incorrect access list 2 statement.

5. What are three accurate descriptors of the functionality of the Cisco IOS IP SLA feature? (Choose three.)
the sending of simulated data
applies only to distance vector protocols
the filtering of routing updates to and from neighbors
a requirement that NTP be configured on source and responder
provision of a mechanism to mark packets with different ToS
verification that the TCP or UDP ports on a target are active and responsive

6.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information that is presented, which statement is true?
Access list 1 specifies that packets with a destination address of 192.168.1.0 will be policy routed.
Access list 2 specifies that packets with a source address of 172.16.1.0 will be policy routed.
Packets that match access list 1 will be sent to the next-hop address 172.17.1.2.
Packets that match access list 2 will be denied access.
Both match statements must be true for the ISP1 route map to be true.

7. What is the purpose of using an offset list when implementing path control in EIGRP?
to measure EIGRP updates and then trap them once they meet a specific threshold
to filter EIGRP updates in a continuous, reliable, and predictable manner
to increase incoming and outgoing metrics to routes learned by EIGRP
to cause the router to evaluate for inconsistencies all packets that come into an interface

8. Quality of Service (QoS) and Cisco Wide Area Application Services (WAAS) are two examples of which path control consideration?
resiliency
availability
adaptability
performance
support for network and application services

9.
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information presented, which two IP SLA related statements are true? (Choose two.)
IP SLA 99 is measuring jitter.
IP SLA 99 is scheduled to begin in 2 hours.
IP SLA 99 is sending echo requests every 10 seconds.
IP SLA 99 is sending echo requests from IP address 192.168.2.1.
IP SLA 99 was configured with the type dns target-addr 192.168.2.1 command.
IP SLA 99 will run forever unless explicitly disabled.

10. Which two descriptions are accurate about the path control functionality of offset lists? (Choose two.)
used to increase metrics
used to increase administrative distance
provides a mechanism to mark packets with ToS
can be applied to only the inbound direction on an interface
can be applied to routes that are learned via dynamic routing protocols
can be applied only to routes that are learned via distance vector protocols

11. Which two IP SLA path control statements are true? (Choose two.)
An IP SLA operation is a measurement that includes protocol, frequency, traps, and thresholds.
IOS IP SLA is a mechanism for increasing incoming and outgoing metrics to routes that are learned via RIP or EIGRP.
The IOS IP SLA feature allows performance measurements between a Cisco device and another Cisco device or a host.
The IOS IP SLA feature can only measure performance statistics between a Cisco device and a host.
The IOS IP SLA feature can only measure performance statistics between Cisco devices.
The IOS IP SLA feature is only configurable using the command-line interface (CLI).

12.
Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 is configured on routers in the network. Which commands would an administrator issue on the R3 router in order for traffic to take the fastest path from R4 to the 192.168.1.0 network on the R1 router?
router rip
distribution-list 1 out
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255

router rip
offset-list 1 in 5 serial 0/0/0
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255

router rip
offset-list 1 out 5 serial 0/0/1
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255

router rip
ip prefix-list 1 in 2 out
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255

router rip
distribution-list 1 out
access-list 1 permit 172.16.13.0 0.0.0.3

13. Which two commands can be used to verify that an offset list has altered the path taken by traffic? (Choose two.)
traceroute
telnet
ping
show ip route
show ip protocols
show running-config

14.
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information presented, which statement is true?
A default static route was configured with the track keyword.
EIGRP was configured to track the host at IP address 192.168.2.1.
IP SLA operation 99 is currently monitoring the network 192.168.2.0/24.
IP SLA operation 99 has lost connectivity to 172.16.12.2.

15. When policy-based routing (PBR) is being implemented, which set command will override explicit entries in the routing table?
set ip next-hop
set ip precedence
set default interface
set ip default next-hop

16.
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration will ensure that traffic that originates from network 172.16.1.0 will be forwarded out Serial 0/0/0?
R1(config)# access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0
R1(config)# route-map ISP-1 permit 10
R1(config-route-map)# match ip address 1
R1(config-route-map)# set interface serial 0/0/0
R1(config)# interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)# ip policy route-map ISP-1

R1(config)# access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255
R1(config)# route-map ISP-1 permit 10
R1(config-route-map)# match ip address 1
R1(config-route-map)# set interface s0/0/0
R1(config)# interface fa0/1
R1(config-if)# ip policy route-map ISP-1

R1(config)# access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255
R1(config)# route-map ISP-1 permit 10
R1(config-route-map)# match ip address 1
R1(config-route-map)# set interface s0/0/0
R1(config)# interface s0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip policy route-map ISP-1

R1(config)# access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.255.255.255
R1(config)# route-map ISP-1 permit 10
R1(config-route-map)# match ip address 1
R1(config-route-map)# set interface fa0/0
R1(config)# interface s0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip policy route-map ISP-1

R1(config)# access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.255.255.255
R1(config)# route-map ISP-1 permit 10
R1(config-route-map)# match ip address 1
R1(config-route-map)# set interface fa0/1
R1(config)# interface s0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip policy route-map ISP-1

17.
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming all FastEthernet interfaces have been configured with the ip policy route-map LOAD_BALANCE command and are up, how will router R1 treat packets that are received from network 10.2.0.0 and destined for the Internet?
will be dropped by R1
will be forwarded out interface S0/0/0
will be forwarded out interface S0/1/0
will be routed normally based on the routing table
will be load balanced through each serial interface

18. Which path control consideration creates an effective use of bandwidth by having traffic use different paths for opposite directions?
availability
adaptability
performance
predictability
asymmetric routing

19. Which path control consideration helps provide an acceptable level of service when a failure occurs?
availability
adaptability
performance
resiliency
support for network and application services

20. Which IP SLA statement is true?
An IP SLA responder could be a web server or an IP host.
Cisco IOS IP SLAs use passive traffic monitoring, generating traffic in a random manner to measure network performance.
IP SLA operations are configured on a target device.
To increase security of IP SLAs control messages, Message Digest 5 (MD5) authentication can be used.

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ROUTE Chapter 6 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – ROUTE Chapter 6 – CCNP ROUTE: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. Which BGP routers will become peers and share routing information?
BGP routers that are configured with the same network command
BGP routers share routing information with all routers in the same AS by default.
BGP routers that are configured with the neighbor command
BGP routers that are configured with the same peer command

2.
Refer to the exhibit. BGP sessions are established between all routers. RTC receives route updates for network 209.165.200.224/27 from autonomous system 300 with the weight attribute set to 3000. RTB also learns about network 209.165.200.224/27 from autonomous system 200 with a weight of 2000. Which router will be used by RTA as a next hopreach this network?
RTB because of the lowest weight
RTB because of the slow 64 kb/s link
RTB because of the shortest AS_Path
RTC because of the highest weight
RTC because of the longest AS_Path
RTC because of the T1 link

3.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
The neighbor at 190.10.50.1 is an external peer.
The neighbor at 170.10.20.2 is an internal peer.
RTA is going to advertise that it is part of AS 300.
RTA is going to advertise network 150.10.0.0 to its neighbors if 150.10.0.0 or its subnets are in the IP routing table.

4.
Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is currently unable to access network 172.16.10.0/24. Based on the information in the exhibit, which configuration would fix the problem?
R1(config)# router bgp 65100
R1(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0
R1(config)# router bgp 65100
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0
R1(config)# router bgp 65100
R1(config-router)# no synchronization
R1(config)# router eigrp 1
R1(config-router)# no auto-summary

5. Which two statements are key characteristics of BGP? (Choose two.)
It uses cost as its metric.
It is a link-state routing protocol.
It is a policy-based routing protocol.
It uses bandwidth and delay as its metric.
It is an advanced distance vector routing protocol.
It provides interdomain routing between autonomous systems.

6.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations will allow router R1 to establish a neighbor relationship with router R2? (Choose two.)
R1(config)# router bgp 100
R1(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0

R1(config)# router bgp 100
R1(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0
R1(config-router)# neighbor 209.165.200.226 remote-as 200

R1(config)# router bgp 200
R1(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
R1(config-router)# neighbor 209.165.200.225 remote-as 100

R2(config)# router bgp 200
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0

R2(config)# router bgp 200
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0
R2(config-router)# neighbor 209.165.200.226 remote-as 200

R2(config)# router bgp 200
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
R2(config-router)# neighbor 209.165.200.225 remote-as 100

7. An enterprise must interconnect multiple sites. Which technology would provide secure and manageable connections over the Layer 3 ISP network without the additional expense of leased lines?
IBGP
IP SLA
MPLS VPN
BGP dual-homed
BGP dual-multihomed

8. An enterprise has routers with limited resources but requires the best path to selected external networks. Which multihoming option would provide the best solution?
multihoming with default routes from all providers
multihoming with full Internet routes from all providers
multihoming with default routes and partial Internet routes from all providers
multihoming with partial Internet routes from one provider and default routes from all other providers

9.
Refer to the exhibit. An organization has configured a multihomed solution using EBGP between two edge routers and two ISPs. The edge routers are receiving only default routes from each ISP EBGP peer. Which two statements are true of this solution? (Choose two.)
EIGRP will choose the best route to exit the autonomous system.
Traffic between the ISPs will be routed through autonomous system 65500.
All routers in autonomous system 65500 must have complete knowledge of external routes.
A TCP session must be established between the edge routers and the ISP routers.
Full-mesh IBGP must be configured in autonomous system 65500 for internal hosts to reach the ISPs.

10.
Refer to the exhibit. Autonomous system 65500 is routing traffic between two external BGP autonomous systems, autonomous system 65200 and autonomous system 65100. Synchronization is disabled on BGP in autonomous system 65500. Which routers should have IBGP peer relationships for routing between autonomous system 65200 and autonomous system 65100 to work properly?
R1 and R5
R1, R3, and R4
R1, R3, R4, and R5
ISP A, R1, R5, and ISP B

11. What is the range of autonomous system numbers reserved for private use?
1 to 32768
1 to 65535
32768 to 65535
64512 to 65535
65512 to 65535

12.
Refer to the exhibit. BGP sessions are established between all routers. Router RTC has the local preference for network 209.165.200.224/27 set to 200 and router RTB has a local preference set to 150 for the same network. Which router will by RTA as a next hop to reach network 209.165.299.224/27?
RTB because of the lowest local preference
RTB because of the slow 64 kb/s link
RTB because of the shortest AS_Path
RTC because of the highest local preference
RTC because of the longest AS_Path
RTC because of the T1 link

13.
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is receiving the prefix 10.22.0.0/16 from an IBGP peer. The prefix appears in the BGP table of R1, but not in the IP routing table. What could be preventing R1 from installing 10.22.0.0/16 in the routing table?
automatic summarization disabled
EBGP multihop misconfiguration
incorrect use of the update-source command
route dampening
synchronization

14. How can static routes be dynamically injected into BGP?
Create the static routes with an administrative distance equal to BGP.
Apply the redistribute static command to the BGP configuration.
Create a prefix list that covers the scope of the networks that are specified by the static routes.
Use route maps instead of static routes to dynamically update the convergence.

15. Which two options best describe an exterior routing protocol (EGP)? (Choose two.)
an interdomain routing protocol
an intradomain routing protocol
a routing protocol that is used for intradomain routing such as IS-IS and OSPFv3
a routing protocol that exchanges routing information within an autonomous system
a routing protocol that exchanges routing information between different autonomous systems

16.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the show ip bgp summary and debug ip bgp output, which two statements must be true? (Choose two.)
The router at 10.255.2.2 is an EBGP peer.
The ebgp multi-hop command is missing from the BGP configuration.
R1 has established an EBGP peering relationship.
R1 is directly connected to an IBGP peer.
R1 cannot route BGP packets to 10.255.2.2.

17. Which BGP attribute is used by BGP to ensure a loop-free topology on the Internet?
Next_hop
As_path
local preference
Atomic aggregate
Origin

18.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator in autonomous system 65100 has set up a dual-homed BGP connection with an ISP. The administrator would like to ensure that all traffic from the ISP enters the autonomous system through router R1. Which BGP attribute can the administrator configure on routers R1 and R2 to accomplish this?
multi_exit_discriminator
local preference
aggregate
next-hop
weight

19. Which routes are available to a BGP speaker to advertise to peers once an adjacency is formed?
only routes in the IP routing table
only routes in the BGP forwarding database
only routes that are learned from IBGP peers in the same autonomous system
any route in either the IP routing table or BGP forwarding database

20. What is a disadvantage to multihoming and accepting only a default route from each ISP?
Because of load balancing between ISPs, suboptimal routing may occur.
Because routers will select the edge router based on the IGP metric, suboptimal routing may occur.
Because routing loops within the IGP routing domain may occur, only a single ISP connection can be used.
Because no more than one default route can be advertised into the IGP routing domain, only a single ISP
connection can be used.

Read more ...

ROUTE Chapter 4 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – ROUTE Chapter 4 – CCNP ROUTE: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1.

Refer to the exhibit. Two-way redistribution was configured between OSPF and RIP on R2. After the redistribution, R3 does not see any external routes coming from the RIP domain. The debug ip ospf database external output reveals that no external LSAs are generated for the routes. What could the problem be?
A subnets keyword is missing from the R2 configuration.
An area 0 stub command is missing from the R2 configuration.
A default-metric command is missing from the R2 configuration.
A distribute-list in Serial0/1 command on R3 is blocking all of the updates coming from R2.

2.
Refer to the exhibit. RTA has two paths to network 10.0.0.0/8 via two serial links, Serial 0/0/0 to RTB and Serial 0/0/1 to RTC. RTA is not running any dynamic routing protocol and its preferred route to network 10.0.0.0/8 is via RTC. Which commands on RTA would configure it to use RTB to reach network 10.0.0.0/8 only if the serial link to RTC fails?
ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0
ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/1 130
ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/1
ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0 130
ip routing
ip default-network 10.0.0.0
ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0
no ip routing
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/1

3. What is the final step when configuring policy-based routing?
Define access lists.
Configure policy with the use of the route-map command.
Apply policy to an interface using ip policy route-map command.
Apply match commands.

4. Which prefix-list entry will be used when multiple entries in a prefix list match a given prefix?
all matching entries
entry with the lowest sequence number
entry with the largest sequence number
entry with the longest prefix mask length

5. Which method of redistribution is least likely to introduce a routing loop into a network?
one-way
two-way
one-point
multipoint

6.
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer was called to investigate some intermittent delay and jitter issues with the corporate network that is shown. The engineer determined that the root cause is that the routing tables in the district routers are so large that the routers cannot maintain the tables efficiently. What can be done to mitigate this issue?
Implement a classful routing protocol.
Use OSPF as the routing protocol between the regional routers.
Enable autosummarization on the WAN links from the regional routers to the district routers.
From the regional routers, advertise only default routes to district routers and filter out all remaining networks.

7.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command was issued to display the route metric and minimum MTU information that is shown?
show ip route metrics
show ip route 131.119.0.0
show ip route metric 131.119.0.0
show ip route metric-mtu

8. Which command would allow advertising only an aggregate address of 192.168.0.0/16 when applied by using a neighbor statement that contains prefix-list [prefix-list name] out?
permit 192.168.0.0/0 le 16
permit 192.168.0.0/16
permit 192.168.0.0/16 ge 16
permit 192.168.0.0/16 eq 16

9.
Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is operating normally with the routing protocols configured with the default settings. What path will packets from PC1 take to the file server?
AR2-DR1
AR3-DR1
AR2-AR3-DR1
AR3-AR2-DR1

10. Which is the default seed metric for an OSPF route that is redistributed into an EIGRP autonomous system?
infinity
1
20
90
110
170

11. Which command would deploy a prefix list in a BGP environment?
ip prefix-list distribute
ip bgp prefix-list distribute
neighbor [ip address] prefix-list prefix-list-name [in/out]
neighbor [ip address] prefix-list-name [in/out]

12.
Refer to the exhibit. The EIGRP subnets such as 10.10.0.0/16 and 10.20.0.0/16 are not being seen inside the OSPF domain. What is a possible reason for this?
The redistribute command is missing the subnets keyword in the OSPF configuration.
The network statement for EIGRP is missing the network mask configuration.
The metric configuration for OSPF is set too high.
A seed metric for EIGRP has not been set.

13. A router has learned the route 192.168.254.0 /24 from multiple sources. These sources are as follows:
- RIPv1 route with a metric of 12
- EIGRP with a metric of 125689
- OSPF E2 route with a metric of 125
- EIGRP external route with a metric of 3489
- OSPF type 1 route with a metric of 632
- OSPF route with a metric of 4
What route will be injected into the routing table?
D with metric of 125689
E1 with a metric of 632
E2 with a metric of 125
EX with a metric of 3489
O with a metric of 4
R with metric of 12

14. Which criterion must be met before a route can be redistributed into another routing protocol?
be directly connected
exist in the routing table
be learned through a dynamic routing protocol
be learned from a different routing protocol than the protocol into which it is redistributed
have an administrative distance that is greater than that of the routing protocol into which it is being redistributed

15.
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer was called to investigate some intermittent delay and jitter issues with the corporate network that is exhibited. The engineer determined that the root cause of the issue is excessive routing updates. What solution would mitigate this issue?
Re-address the corporate network to allow summarization.
Implement RIPv1 classful route summarization.
Use OSPF as the routing protocol between the regional routers.
Migrate the routing protocol to multiarea OSPF to summarize networks.

16.
Refer to the exhibit. You have been asked to investigate why users in the District 2 offices are experiencing long delays when accessing their e-mail. After a preliminary investigation, you determine that the route to the District 1 server farm in the District 2 router is through the regional office switch. What can be done to resolve this fault?
Make the WAN interfaces on the district routers passive EIGRP interfaces.
On the district routers, lower the OSPF cost to 1 on the interfaces between the routers.
On the district routers, change the default metric of the EIGRP routes that are being injected to 10000.
Modify the administrative distance of OSPF to 80 on the district routers for the routes that are included in 10.0.0.0 /8.

17. Which statement best describes the route tag in a RIPv2 packet?
The route tag contains a 32-bit mask that identifies the network and subnet portion of the IP address.
It contains the IP address of the next hop that is listed in the IP Address field.
It indicates how many internetwork hops or routers have been traversed in the trip to the destination.
It differentiates between a request for a full routing table or a partial routing update due to a topology
change.
It differentiates between routes that are learned within the autonomous system and those that were
redistributed into the routing process.

18.
Refer to the exhibit. After configuring two-way redistribution, an administrator notices that none of the EIGRP routes are being advertised in the OSPF network. What is a possible reason that the routes are not being advertised?
The wrong EIGRP AS is being redistributed.
The metric value is wrong for the redistribute command under EIGRP.
The metric value is wrong for the redistribute command under OSPF.
The subnets keyword is missing on the redistribute command under OSPF.

19.
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer was called to investigate some intermittent delay and jitter issues with the corporate network that is exhibited. The engineer determined that the root cause of the issue is excessive routing updates. What solution would mitigate this problem?
Enable OSPF autosummarization on all the routers.
Implement RIPv1 classful route summarization.
Create an OSPF area from each interface on the regional routers to summarize advertisements.
Configure the WAN interfaces of the district routers to summarize the routes into the regional routers.

20.
Refer to the exhibit. How will router RTA redistribute routes between the two autonomous systems?
Route redistribution will not be successful in either direction.
One-way redistribution will occur with EIGRP routes being redistributed into RIP.
One-way redistribution will occur with RIP routes being redistributed into EIGRP.
Two-way redistribution will occur with RIP routes being redistributed into EIGRP and then back into RIP.

Read more ...

ROUTE Chapter 3 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – ROUTE Chapter 3 – CCNP ROUTE: Implementing IP Cisco Routing (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. Which OSPF network type requires the election of a DR/BDR?

broadcast
point-to-point
point-to-multipoint
point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast

2. In an OSPF hub-and-spoke topology, what needs to be done to ensure that the spoke routers would never be selected as DR and BDR?
Because nonbroadcast networks do not elect a DR/BDR, nothing needs to be done.
All routers must be configured with an OSPF interface priority of 0 (ip ospf priority) to disable the DR/BDR election process.
All spoke routers need to be configured with an OSPF interface priority of 0 (ip ospf priority) so that they will not become the DR/BDR.
One of the spoke routers will need to be configured as the DR by setting the OSPF interface priority higher than 1 (ip ospf priority).

3. A network administrator is implementing OSPF in a portion of the network and must ensure that only specific routes are advertised via OSPF. Which network statement would configure the OSPF process for networks 192.168.4.0, 192.168.5.0, 192.168.6.0, and 192.168.7.0, now located in the backbone area, and inject them into the OSPF domain?
r1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 area 1
r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.15.255 area 1
r1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

4. What two advantages does authentication provide that should be considered when planning an OSPF implementation? (Choose two.)
It reduces OSPF information exchange overhead.
It encrypts routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing.
It prevents routing information from being falsified in transit.
It ensures that routing information comes from a valid source router.
It ensures that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or EIGRP updates.

5. When will a router in an OSPF nonbackbone area receive a default route from the ABR or ASBR? (Choose three.)
when the area is a normal area
when the area is a NSSA stub area
when the area is a totally stubby area
when the area is a NSSA totally stubby area
when the area is connected to the backbone area using a virtual link
when the area is a normal area and the ASBR has been configured with the default-information originate always command

6. What are two reasons for creating an OSPF network with multiple areas? (Choose two.)
to protect against the fact that not all routers support the OSPF backbone area
to ensure that an area is used to connect the network to the Internet
to reduce SPF calculations
to reduce use of memory and processor resources
to simplify configuration

7. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
bandwidth
bandwidth and hop count
bandwidth and reliability
bandwidth, load, and reliability

8. Which three items must match between OSPF neighbors in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
hello/dead interval
area ID
priority ID
authentication type
adjacency type
router process ID

9. Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational and converged, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?
A FULL adjacency is formed.
A 2WAY adjacency is formed.
Router2 will become the DR and Router1 will become the BDR.
Both routers will become DROTHERS.

10. A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router loses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?
All routes for the entire network will be present.
Directly connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.
Because the SPF algorithm has not completed all calculations, no routes will be in the table.
A summary route for all previously learned routes will automatically appear in the routing table until all LSPs have been received by the router.

11. What are two effects of using multiple OSPF areas that reduce bandwidth and router overhead? (Choose two.)
prevention of a flood of queries
reduction in the size of the LSDB
reduction in the size of the neighbor table
limits on the propagation of type 1 and 2 LSAs
decrease in the number of DR and BDR elections

12. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
to announce new OSPF information
to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
to request more information about any entry in the BDR
to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers

13. Refer to the exhibit. How does the router treat the authentication of OSPF packets that enter and leave FastEthernet interface 0/0?
OSPF packets are sent with authentication key 10 only.
OSPF packets are sent with authentication key 20 only.
Two copies of every OSPF packet are sent, one with key 10 and one with key 20.
Key 10 is used to authenticate incoming packets and key 20 is used to authenticate outgoing packets.

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of OSPF packets are represented by the debug command output?
link-state request packets sent with plain-text authentication
hello packets sent with a MD5 hashed authentication key id of 100
hello packets sent in simple authentication with a password of youngest
link-state update packets sent encrypted with a 100 bit authentication key

15. Refer to the exhibit. What destination address will RTB use to advertise LSAs?
224.0.0.5
224.0.0.6
10.1.7.17
172.16.1.1
172.16.2.1
255.255.255.255

16. Which two statements are correct about OSPF route summarization? (Choose two.)
Automatic OSPF route summarization is performed by the ABR.
The metric of the summary route is equal to the lowest cost network within the summary address range.
The area 51 range 172.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 command identifies area 51 as the area that contains the range of networks to be summarized.
OSPF can perform automatic summarization on major classful network boundaries even if no summarization commands are entered from the CLI.
Once OSPF route summarization is configured, the summary route will be advertised even if none of the networks in the address range are in the routing table.

17. Which two statements are correct about OSPF NSSA areas? (Choose two.)
The NSSA is a Cisco proprietary area type.
Type 7 LSAs are translated to type 5 LSAs by the ABR.
Type 7 LSAs are originated by the ASBR that is connected to the NSSA.
Type 7 LSAs are denoted in the routing table of an NSSA internal router as E1 or E2.
Both NSSA stub and totally stubby areas have a default route that is injected into the NSSA area by ABR.

18. How can correct OSPF topology change-behavior be verified as part of an implementation plan?
Debug the DUAL finite state machine.
Review the running configuration file.
Check the topology table for SIA routes.
Test link failure and router failure events.

19. What is the correct method to configure route summarization on an OSPF router?
Configure OSPF and instruct the ABR to summarize specific area routes.
Configure OSPF and instruct the ASBR to summarize internal area routes.
Configure the ABR and ASBR to summarize routes on an interface basis.
Do nothing because summarization is on by default.

20. Which command can be used to determine the stability of an OSPF area by examining the number of times SPF has been executed for that area? 
show ip ospf
show ip route
show ip protocols
show ip ospf database

Read more ...

ROUTE Chapter 2 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% - Take Assessment – ROUTE Chapter 2 – CCNP ROUTE: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 and R2 for EIGRP authentication with multiple keys and activation times. After functioning normally for a month, R1 and R2 are now no longer forming an EIGRP adjacency. Which configuration change to the key lifetimes will correct the EIGRP adjacency problem?
Change the key 1 accept life to an end time of Feb 1 on both routers.
Change key 2 send lifetime to a start time of Jan 1 on both routers.
Change the key 1 send lifetime to an end time of Feb 1 on both routers.
Change the key 2 accept lifetime to a start time of infinite on both routers.

2. Which event must take place to transition an EIGRP route that is in the active state back to the passive state?
expiration of the RTO timer
an update packet that is received from every EIGRP neighbor
an acknowledgment that is received from every EIGRP neighbor
a reply that is received from each neighbor for every generated query
a feasible successor route that is moved from the topology table to the routing table

3. Which EIGRP packet type can quickly propagate through a network and result in excessive DUAL computations and high CPU loads?
acknowledgment
hello
reply
update
query

4. When does an EIGRP router place a route in the active state?
when there is no successor route in the routing table
when the feasible distance is greater than the reported distance of the route
when an update packet containing information about the route is not acknowledged
when the current successor is no longer valid and there is no feasible successor in the topology table

5. Which two solutions are used in an EIGRP network to reduce DUAL computations? (Choose two.)
authentication
load balancing
partial updates
summarization
EIGRP stub routing

6. Which two statements are true of EIGRP topology depth? (Choose two.)
Topology depth should be limited to 15 routers.
Redundant links and alternative paths can be used to reduce topology depth.
Topology depth is the maximum hop count between any two EIGRP routers in the topology.
Route summarization can reduce the convergence time in networks with large depth.
Topology depth is the number of router hops necessary for traffic to reach from access layer to core layer.
Topology depth refers to the total number of hops that information must travel to reach all EIGRP routers in the network.

7. Which EIGRP algorithm tracks all the routes that are advertised by neighbors and uses the composite metric of each route to compare the routes?
STP
Dijkstra
DUAL
SPF

8. Which three technologies are used in EIGRP? (Choose three.)
Dijkstra algorithm
DUAL finite-state machine
reliable transport protocol
link-state advertisements
protocol-specific modules
Bellman-Ford algorithm

9.Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two possible problems with adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
The routers are configured with different EIGRP AS numbers.
Automatic summarization was disabled.
The hello timer for R1 was altered.
The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.
No feasible successors were found.

10.Refer to the exhibit. During a test of an EIGRP prototype network, a network administrator issues a show ip protocols command. What two facts can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance is 100.
This router will not accept routes that are more than 100 hops away.
There are 10 Cisco devices in this prototype network.
The auto-summary command was applied on this router.
EIGRP is using two values for the calculation of the composite metric.
EIGRP on this router will display up to four unequal cost routes to the same destination.

11. A router in a fully converged EIGRP network detects that a remote route is unreachable. Which two events may occur next? (Choose two.)
EIGRP will look for a feasible successor in the routing table.
DUAL will calculate the highest cost routes to each network.
EIGRP will send a bounded update to alert neighbors about the failure.
The router will forward the complete routing table to the neighboring routers.
DUAL will look for a feasible successor route in the topology table and, if one is found, it will add this route to the routing table.
12.Refer to the exhibit. All three routers are exchanging EIGRP routes. What value represents the advertised distance of the feasible successor for the 10.1.2.0/24 network?
256
532
768
1280

13.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true of the EIGRP keys that are used by router R2?
R2 is encrypting EIGRP packets with only key 1.
R2 is encrypting EIGRP packets with both key 1 and key 2.
R2 is using only key 2 to authenticate received EIGRP packets.
R2 is authenticating received EIGRP packets with both key 1 and key 2.

14. Which action is effective in preventing EIGRP routes from becoming SIA?
Use multiple EIGRP autonomous systems to bound the query range.
Modify keepalive timers on point-to-point connections.
Maintain a hierarchical network design.
Keep K-values at default settings.

15. What are two advantages to deploying a hierarchical IP addressing scheme in an EIGRP network? (Choose two.)
greater redundancy
improved scalability
ability to use network route summarization
better route optimization creating shorter paths
fewer network addresses that need to be allocated for the network

16. Which statement is a requirement for the EIGRP AS number?
It is the EIGRP router ID and must be the same on each router in the EIGRP domain.
It is only locally significant, and as a result it can be different on each router in the EIGRP domain.
It is selected by the network administrator and must be the same on each router in the EIGRP domain.
It is assigned by IANA and must be the same on each router in the EIGRP domain.

17. What are two advantages of modifying the interface metrics when deploying EIGRP in a network? (Choose two.)
improved bandwidth utilization
less likely to have routing loops
faster convergence
better control over traffic patterns
more efficient troubleshooting

18. Which design plan or diagram would govern how well EIGRP will scale?
IP addressing plan
STP topology diagram
Layer 2 addressing plan
detailed cabling plan
EIGRP traffic engineering plan

19.

The network administrator wants RTA to send only the summarized route of 10.10.0.0/16 to RTB. Which configuration will accomplish this?
RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary

RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary

RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0

RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the EIGRP hello packets that are received by router R2?
They are encrypted.
They are authenticated.
They are sent confidentially.
They must be acknowledged.

Read more ...

NEW CCNP curriculum v6 - ROUTE, SWITCH + TSHOOT

Beside the already known - i.e. leaked - information some of the key facts are as follows:

• The current BSCI, BCMSN, ONT and ISWC exams will be replaced by the ROUTE, SWITCH and TSHOOT exams
• The length of the new exams will be increased to 120 minutes each
• The ROUTE and SWITCH exams contain 52 questions each, the TSHOOT exam 53 questions
• The price of the new exams will be increased up to $ 200.00 each
• The last day to test for the old exams is July 31, 2010
• The new ROUTE and SWITCH exams will be available on March 10, 2010
• The new TSHOOT exam will be available on April 30, 2010
• If you do not pass ISCW and ONT by July 31, 2010 you have to pass the new TSHOOT exam

The official announcement from Global Knowledge can be found HERE.

UPDATE #1:

FastLane and ExperTeach - the other 2 Certified Learning Partners - also updated their websites this morning [GMT+1] with the same information. 
So we can indeed expect the announcement from Cisco later today, i.e. once the US wakes up.

UPDATE #2:

Cisco just updated their website with the new CCNP Certification curriculum. Of course, the CCIP Certification and CCDP Certification pages got updated as well.

Cisco also released a special CCNP Exam Combination Tool which you can use to determine which exams you have to pass in case you are in the middle of the track right now.

UPDATE #3:

Cisco has now also updated The Cisco Learning Network with lots of information about the new exams. Below a selection of the ones that I found to be most interesting:

1) Special Beta Offer for CCNP TSHOOT Exam:

This exam will initially be released as a beta exam. You can register and take the beta (#643-832) from February 16 through March 26, 2010. All details can be found HERE.

2) The Blueprints aka exam topics of the new exams (login required):

642-902 ROUTE Exam Topics (Blueprint)
642-813 SWITCH Exam Topics (Blueprint)
642-832 TSHOOT Exam Topics (Blueprint)

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UPDATE #4:

The study materials for the new exams are not yet listed at Cisco Press but this should be only a matter of hours. However, based on the available information you can expect to see the following official books to be released very soon:

• CCNP ROUTE Exam Certification Guide, February 2010
• CCNP SWITCH Exam Certification Guide, February 2010
• CCNP TSHOOT Exam Certification Guide, February 2010

In addition there will be so-called Cert Kits containing Video, Flash Cards and Quick Reference Preparation Packs for each exam (expected around February - April) and finally the Official Self-Study Guides for each exam (expected around April - July).

So it seems that at least the Exam Certification Guides will be ready in time to prepare you for the new exams as soon as they are available.

UPDATE #5:

There is a nice 10 minutes presentation regarding the upcoming changes at Cisco TV. Make sure to check it out. In contains a lot of additional information.

CiscoPress just started to update their site with information regarding the upcoming CCNP certification books. In addition to the above mentioned materials they also plan to publish Portable Command Guides for each exam as before. No scheduled release dates yet but those should be added pretty soon.

UPDATE #6:

Cisco has re-released the FAQ regarding the new CCNP curriculum on their Certifications & Communities Online Support website.

There you can find a whopping 27 Instant Answers regarding the updated track. Almost every question you can think of gets answered. Make sure to check it out.


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