CCNA 2 R&S Essentials Chapter 4 v5.0 Exam Answers 2014

1 
What type of IPv6 address is required as a minimum on IPv6 enabled interfaces?

static
global unicast
link-local*
loopback
unique local

2 
In order for packets to be sent to a remote destination, what three pieces of information must be configured on a host? (Choose three.)

default gateway*
hostname
DNS server address
DHCP server address
IP address*
subnet mask*

3 
What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

MAC addresses
Layer 1 statuses*
IP addresses*
next-hop addresses
interface descriptions
speed and duplex settings

4

Place the options in the following order:
next hop 
destination network 
metric 
- not scored -
administrative distance 
route timestamp 
route source protocol 
- not scored -

5 
Which two items are used by a host device when performing an ANDing operation to determine if a destination address is on the same local network? (Choose two.)

destination MAC address
network number
destination IP address*
source MAC address
subnet mask*

6

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 route command on R1. What two conclusions can be drawn from the routing table? (Choose two.)

Packets that are destined for the network 2001:DB8:ACAD:2::/64 will be forwarded through Fa0/1.
R1 does not know a route to any remote networks.*
The interface Fa0/1 is configured with IPv6 address 2001:DB8:ACAD:A::12.*
Packets that are destined for the network 2001:DB8:ACAD:2::54/128 will be forwarded through Fa0/0.
The network FF00::/8 is installed through a static route command.

7

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the highlighted field in the line that is displayed from the show ip route command?

It indicates that this is a directly connected route.
It indicates that this route has been deleted from the routing table.
It indicates that this route was learned via EIGRP.*
It indicates that this is a default route.

8 
Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP.
A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances.
The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.*
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.*
The metric is always determined based on hop count.

9 
What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

It manages the VLAN database.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain.
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
It determines the best path to send packets.*
It connects multiple IP networks.*

10 
A packet moves from a host on one network to a device on a remote network within the same company. If NAT is not performed on the packet, which two items remain unchanged during the transfer of the packet from source to destination? (Choose two.)

destination MAC address
source ARP table
source IP address*
destination IP address*
source MAC address
Layer 2 header

11

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 attempts to connect to File_server1 and sends an ARP request to obtain a destination MAC address. Which MAC address will PC1 receive in the ARP reply?

the MAC address of File_server1
the MAC address of S2
the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R2
the MAC address of S1
the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R1*

12 
A network administrator configures the interface fa0/0 on the router R1 with the command ip address 172.16.1.254 255.255.255.0. However, when the administrator issues the command show ip route, the routing table does not show the directly connected network. What is the possible cause of the problem?

The interface fa0/0 has not been activated.*
No packets with a destination network of 172.16.1.0 have been sent to R1.
The subnet mask is incorrect for the IPv4 address.
The configuration needs to be saved first.

13 
Which command is used to configure an IPv6 address on a router interface so that the router will combine a manually specified network prefix with an automatically generated interface identifier?

ipv6 enable
ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length eui-64*
ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length link-local
ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length

14 
Fill in the blank.
When a router receives a packet, it examines the destination address of the packet and looks in the ” routing ” table to determine the best path to use to forward the packet.

15 
A network administrator configures a router by the command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226. What is the purpose of this command?

to provide a route to forward packets for which there is no route in the routing table*
to forward packets destined for the network 0.0.0.0 to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226
to add a dynamic route for the destination network 0.0.0.0 to the routing table
to forward all packets to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226

16

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 route command on R1. Which two types of routes are displayed in the routing table? (Choose two.)

route that is learned through the EIGRP routing protocol
directly connected network*
route that is learned through the OSPF routing protocol
static route
local host route*

17 
What address changes as a packet travels across multiple Layer 3 Ethernet hops to its final destination?

source Layer 2 address*
source IP
destination port
destination IP

18

Refer to the exhibit. What will the router do with a packet that has a destination IP address of 192.168.12.227?

Drop the packet.
Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface.
Send the packet out the Serial0/0/0 interface.*
Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.

19 
A network administrator is implementing dynamic routing protocols for a company. Which command can the administrator issue on a router to display the supported routing protocols?

Router(config)# router ?*
Router(config)# ip forward-protocol ?
Router(config)# service ?
Router(config)# ip route ?

20

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown. When the administrator checks the status of the serial interface, the interface is shown as being administratively down. What additional command must be entered on the serial interface of R1 to bring the interface up?

no shutdown*
end
clockrate 128000
IPv6 enable

21 
What is one feature that distinguishes routers from Layer 2 switches?

Switches use tables of information to determine how to process data traffic. Routers do not.
Switches move packets from one physical interface to another. Routers do not.
Routers support a variety of interface types. Switches typically support Ethernet interfaces.*
Routers can be configured with IP addresses. Switches cannot.

22 
Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*
It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
It has an administrative distance of 1.

23

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ip route command on R2. What two types of routes are installed in the routing table? (Choose two.)

directly connected networks*
routes that are learned through the OSPF routing protocol
a configured default route
routes that are learned through the EIGRP routing protocol*
a configured static route to the network 209.165.200.224

24 
When a computer is pinging another computer for the first time, what type of message does it place on the network to determine the MAC address of the other device?

an RFI (Request for Information) message
an ARP request*
an ICMP ping
a multicast to any Layer 3 devices that are connected to the local network

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CCNA 2 R&S Essentials Chapter 3 v5.0 Exam Answers 2014

1 
A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking?​ (Choose two.)

between two switches that share a common VLAN
between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q NIC*
between a switch and a client PC
between a switch and a network printer
between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs*

2 
What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?

The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN.
The port creates the VLAN again.
The port goes back to the default VLAN.
The port becomes inactive.*
3

Refer to the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 is connected to a PC. Fa0/2 is a trunk link to another switch. All other ports are unused. Which security best practice did the administrator forget to configure?

Configure all unused ports to a ‘black-hole’ VLAN that is not used for anything on the network.
Disable autonegotiation and set ports to either static access or static trunk.
Change the native VLAN to a fixed VLAN that is distinct from all user VLANs and to a VLAN number that is not VLAN 1.
All user ports are associated with VLANs distinct from VLAN 1 and distinct from the ‘black-hole’ VLAN.*

4 
Which command is used to remove only VLAN 20 from a switch?

no switchport access vlan 20
delete flash:vlan.dat
no vlan 20*
delete vlan.dat

5 
A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?

Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.
Erase the running configuration and reboot the switch.
Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.*
Delete the IP address that is assigned to the management VLAN and reboot the switch.

6 
What is the effect of issuing a switchport access vlan 20 command on the Fa0/18 port of a switch that does not have this VLAN in the VLAN database?

VLAN 20 will be created automatically.*
The command will have no effect on the switch.
Port Fa0/18 will be shut down.
An error stating that VLAN 20 does not exist will be displayed and VLAN 20 is not created.
7 
Which command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?

show mac address-table interface Fa0/1
show interfaces Fa0/1 switchport*
show interfaces trunk
show vlan brief

8

Place the options in the following order:

- not scored -

dynamic auto

nonegotiate

dynamic desirable

trunk
9 
Port Fa0/11 on a switch is assigned to VLAN 30. If the command no switchport access vlan 30 is entered on the Fa0/11 interface, what will happen?

Port Fa0/11 will be returned to VLAN 1.*
VLAN 30 will be deleted.
An error message would be displayed.
Port Fa0/11 will be shutdown.

10 
What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?

Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.
Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.*
Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

11 
Which two Layer 2 security best practices would help prevent VLAN hopping attacks? (Choose two.)

Disable DTP autonegotiation on end-user ports.*
Change the management VLAN to a distinct VLAN that is not accessible by regular users.
Statically configure all ports that connect to end-user host devices to be in trunk mode.
Change the native VLAN number to one that is distinct from all user VLANs and is not VLAN 1.*
Use SSH for all remote management access.

12 
In a basic VLAN hopping attack, which switch feature do attackers take advantage of?

automatic encapsulation negotiation
the default automatic trunking configuration*
an open Telnet connection
forwarding of broadcasts

13 
A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30 command on Fa0/5?

It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.*
It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5.
It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.
It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.

14

Refer to the exhibit. A frame is traveling between PC-A and PC-B through the switch. Which statement is true concerning VLAN tagging of the frame?

No VLAN tag is added to the frame.*
A VLAN tag is added when the frame is accepted by the switch.
A VLAN tag is added when the frame is forwarded out the port to PC-B.
A VLAN tag is added when the frame leaves PC-A.

15

Refer to the exhibit. PC-A and PC-B are both in VLAN 60. PC-A is unable to communicate with PC-B. What is the problem?

The native VLAN is being pruned from the link.
The VLAN that is used by PC-A is not in the list of allowed VLANs on the trunk.*
The trunk has been configured with the switchport nonegotiate command.
The native VLAN should be VLAN 60.

16 
What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?

All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.*
Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.
Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.

17 
Under which two occasions should an administrator disable DTP while managing a local area network? (Choose two.)

on links that should not be trunking*
when connecting a Cisco switch to a non-Cisco switch*
on links that should dynamically attempt trunking
when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic auto
when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic desirable
18 

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which PCs will receive the broadcast sent by PC-C?

PC-D, PC-E*
PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E
PC-A, PC-B
PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E, PC-F
PC-A, PC-B, PC-E

19 
Which two statements are true about VLAN implementation? (Choose two.)

The network load increases significantly because of added trunking information.
Devices in one VLAN do not hear the broadcasts from devices in another VLAN.*
The size of the collision domain is reduced.
VLANs logically group hosts, regardless of physical location.*
The number of required switches in a network decreases.

20

Refer to the exhibit. DLS1 is connected to another switch, DLS2, via a trunk link. A host that is connected to DLS1 is not able to communicate to a host that is connected to DLS2, even though they are both in VLAN 99. Which command should be added to Fa0/1 on DLS1 to correct the problem?

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 99
switchport trunk native vlan 66*
switchport mode dynamic auto
switchport nonegotiate

21 
Which switch feature ensures that no unicast, multicast, or broadcast traffic is passed between ports that are configured with this feature?

switch port security
PVLAN protected port*
ACL
VLAN

22 
Fill in the blank. Use the full command syntax.
The ” show vlan brief ” command displays the VLAN assignment for all ports as well as the existing VLANs on the switch.

23 
Which three statements accurately describe VLAN types? (Choose three).

An 802.1Q trunk port, with a native VLAN assigned, supports both tagged and untagged traffic.*
A management VLAN is any VLAN that is configured to access management features of the switch.*
A data VLAN is used to carry VLAN management data and user-generated traffic.
Voice VLANs are used to support user phone and e-mail traffic on a network.
VLAN 1 is always used as the management VLAN.
After the initial boot of an unconfigured switch, all ports are members of the default VLAN.*
24 
Which command should the network administrator implement to prevent the transfer of DTP frames between a Cisco switch and a non-Cisco switch?

S1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
S1(config-if)# switchport nonegotiate*
S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
S1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan none

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CCNA 2 R&S Essentials Chapter 2 v5.0 Exam Answers 2014

1 
Which type of cable does a network administrator need to connect a PC to a switch to recover it after the Cisco IOS software fails to load?

a coaxial cable

a crossover cable

a straight-through cable

a console cable*

2 
Which two basic functions are performed by network security tools? (Choose two.)

writing a security policy document for protecting networks

controlling physical access to user devices

revealing the type of information an attacker is able to gather from monitoring network traffic*

simulating attacks against the production network to determine any existing vulnerabilities*

educating employees about social engineering attacks

3 
While troubleshooting a connectivity problem, a network administrator notices that a switch port status LED is alternating between green and amber. What could this LED indicate?

A PC is using the wrong cable to connect to the port.

The port has an active link with normal traffic activity.

The port is administratively down.

The port has no link.

The port is experiencing errors.*

4

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement?

Reconfigure the RSA key.

Configure SSH on a different line.

Use SSH version 1.

Modify the transport input command.*

5

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Fill in the blank.
Do not use abbreviations.What is the missing command on S1? “ ip address 192.168.99.2 255.255.255.0 ”

The ip address 192.168.99.2 255.255.255.0 command is missing on interface vlan 99, the management VLAN.​

6 
Which three statements are true about using full-duplex Fast Ethernet? (Choose three.)

Performance is improved with bidirectional data flow.*

Performance is improved because the NIC is able to detect collisions.

Latency is reduced because the NIC processes frames faster.

Full-duplex Fast Ethernet offers 100 percent efficiency in both directions.*

Nodes operate in full-duplex with unidirectional data flow.

Performance is improved because the collision detect function is disabled on the device.*
7 
In which type of attack does a malicious node request all available IP addresses in the address pool of a DHCP server in order to prevent legitimate hosts from obtaining network access?​

CAM table overflow

DHCP starvation*

MAC address flooding

DHCP snooping

8 
Which protocol or service sends broadcasts containing the Cisco IOS software version of the sending device, and the packets of which can be captured by malicious hosts on the network?

DNS

CDP*

DHCP

SSH

9 
Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)

The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.

The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.

After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.

Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.*

If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.*
10 
The network administrator enters the following commands on a Cisco switch:

Switch(config)# interface vlan1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown

What is the effect of entering these commands?

The address of the default gateway for this LAN is 192.168.1.2/24.

Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet are able to ping the switch at IP address 192.168.1.2.*

All devices attached to this switch must be in the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet to communicate.

The switch is able to forward frames to remote networks.

11

Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/2 has already been configured appropriately. The IP phone and PC work properly. Which switch configuration would be most appropriate for port Fa0/2 if the network administrator has the following goals?
No one is allowed to disconnect the IP phone or the PC and connect some other wired device.
If a different device is connected, port Fa0/2 is shut down.
The switch should automatically detect the MAC address of the IP phone and the PC and add those addresses to the running configuration.

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky********

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security violation restrict

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
12

Refer to the exhibit. Which event will take place if there is a port security violation on switch S1 interface Fa0/1?

A notification is sent.

The interface will go into error-disabled state.

A syslog message is logged.

Packets with unknown source addresses will be dropped.*

13 
Which method would mitigate a MAC address flooding attack?

using ACLs to filter broadcast traffic on the switch​

increasing the speed of switch ports

increasing the size of the CAM table

configuring port security*

14

Refer to the exhibit. What media issue might exist on the link connected to Fa0/1 based on the show interface command?

The interface might be configured as half-duplex.

The bandwidth parameter on the interface might be too high.

There could be too much electrical interference and noise on the link.*

The cable attaching the host to port Fa0/1 might be too long.

There could be an issue with a faulty NIC.

15 
Fill in the blank.
” Full-duplex” communication allows both ends of a connection to transmit and receive data simultaneously.

Full-duplex communication improves the performance of a switched LAN, increasing effective bandwidth by allowing both ends of a connection to transmit and receive data simultaneously.

16 
Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?

VLAN 1*

VLAN 99

Fa0/0

Fa0/1

interface connected to the default gateway

17 
Which action will bring an error-disabled switch port back to an operational state?

Issue the switchport mode access command on the interface.

Remove and reconfigure port security on the interface.

Clear the MAC address table on the switch.

Issue the shutdown and then no shutdown interface commands.*
18

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about port security from the information that is shown?

The port has been shut down.

The port has the maximum number of MAC addresses that is supported by a Layer 2 switch port which is configured for port security.

The port violation mode is the default for any port that has port security enabled.*

The port has two attached devices.
19

Place the options in the following order:
step 3
- not scored -
step 1 
step 4 
step 2 
step 5 
step 6

20 
Fill in the blank.
When port security is enabled, a switch port uses the default violation mode of    ”   shutdown  ”    until specifically configured to use a different violation mode.

If no violation mode is specified when port security is enabled on a switch port, then the security violation mode defaults to shutdown.

21

Refer to the exhibit. Which S1 switch port interface or interfaces should be configured with the ip dhcp snooping trust command if best practices are implemented?

only the G0/1 and G0/24 ports*

only unused ports

only the G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 ports

only the G0/1 port

only the G0/1, G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 ports
22 
What impact does the use of the mdix auto configuration command have on an Ethernet interface on a switch?

automatically assigns the first detected MAC address to an interface

automatically detects duplex settings

automatically detects copper cable type*

automatically detects interface speed
23 
Which command displays information about the auto-MDIX setting for a specific interface?​

show interfaces

show processes

show running-config

show controllers*
24 
A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a Switch> prompt. What two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)

There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.

The switch did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.

A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.*

The boot process was interrupted.

POST occurred normally.*

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CCNA 2 R&S Essentials Chapter 1 v5.0 Exam Answers 2014

1
What is one advantage of using the cut-through switching method instead of the store-and-forward switching method?

has a positive impact on bandwidth by dropping most of the invalid frames

makes a fast forwarding decision based on the source MAC address of the frame

has a lower latency appropriate for high-performance computing applications​*

provides the flexibility to support any mix of Ethernet speeds

2 
A network designer must provide a rationale to a customer for a design which will move an enterprise from a flat network topology to a hierarchical network topology. Which two features of the hierarchical design make it the better choice? (Choose two.)

reduced cost for equipment and user training

less required equipment to provide the same performance levels

simpler deployment for additional switch equipment*

easier to provide redundant links to ensure higher availability*

lower bandwidth requirements

3 
What are two advantages of modular switches over fixed-configuration switches? (Choose two.)

availability of multiple ports for bandwidth aggregation

lower forwarding rates

need for fewer power outlets*

lower cost per switch

increased scalability*

4

Refer to the exhibit. Consider that the main power has just been restored. PC1 asks the DHCP server for IPv4 addressing. The DHCP server sends it an IPv4 address. While PC2 is still booting up, PC3 issues a broadcast IPv4 DHCP request. To which port will SW1 forward this request?​

to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/4 only​

to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, Fa0/3, and Fa0/4

to Fa0/1 and Fa0/2 only

to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 only*

to Fa0/1 only​

5 
What is one function of a Layer 2 switch?

forwards data based on logical addressing

learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address

duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port

determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address*

6

Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank.
There are ” 12 ” collision domains in the topology.​

7 
What is a collapsed core in a network design?

a combination of the functionality of the access, distribution, and core layers

a combination of the functionality of the access and core layers

a combination of the functionality of the distribution and core layers*

a combination of the functionality of the access and distribution layers
8 
What are two reasons a network administrator would segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

to enhance user bandwidth*

to eliminate virtual circuits

to create more broadcast domains

to isolate traffic between segments*

to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network

to create fewer collision domains

9

Refer to the exhibit.

How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?

SW1 forwards the frame directly to SW2. SW2 floods the frame to all ports connected to SW2, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, excluding the interconnected port to switch SW2 and the port through which the frame entered the switch.

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.*

SW1 drops the frame because it does not know the destination MAC address.

10

Place the options in the following order:
[+] appropriate for high performance computing applications 
[+] forwarding process can begin after receiving the destination address 
[+] may forward invalid frames 
[#] error checking before forwarding 
[#] forwarding process only begin after receiving the entire frame 
[#] only forward valid frames

[+] Order does not matter within this group.
[#] Order does not matter within this group.

11 
What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture distribution layer?

aggregating Layer 3 routing boundaries*

aggregating all the campus blocks

acting as a backbone

providing access to the user

12 
ABC, Inc. has about fifty hosts in one LAN. The administrator would like to increase the throughput of that LAN. Which device will increase the number of collision domains and thereby increase the throughput of the LAN?

hub

host

NIC

switch*

13 
What does the term “port density” represent for an Ethernet switch?

the numbers of hosts that are connected to each switch port

the speed of each port

the memory space that is allocated to each switch port

the number of available ports*

14 
Which type of transmission does a switch use when the destination MAC address is not contained in the MAC address table?

anycast

unicast

broadcast*

multicast

15 
What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer?

aggregates Layer 3 routing boundaries

provides high availability

aggregates Layer 2 broadcast domains

provides access to the user*

16 
What information is added to the switch table from incoming frames?

source MAC address and incoming port number*

destination MAC address and incoming port number

destination IP address and incoming port number

source IP address and incoming port number

17 
Fill in the blank.
A     “converged”     network is one that uses the same infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals.

18 
An administrator purchases new Cisco switches that have a feature called StackPower. What is the purpose of this feature?

It enables many switches to be connected with a special fiber-optic power cable to provide higher bandwidth.

It enables the sharing of power among multiple stackable switches.*

It enables many switches to be connected to increase port density.

It enables many switches to be physically stacked in an equipment rack.

It enables AC power for a switch to be provided from a powered patch panel.

19 
Which switch form factor should be used when large port density, fault tolerance, and low price are important factors?

fixed-configuration switch

modular switch

stackable switch*

rackable 1U switch

20

Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank.
There are     ”  5  ”   broadcast domains in the topology.​

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