ESwitching Chapter 4 CCNA 3 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – ESwitching Chapter 4 – CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0) - Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
VTP allows a switch to be configured to belong to more than one VTP domain.
VTP dynamically communicates VLAN changes to all switches in the same VTP domain.

2.

Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided?
It verifies the configured VTP password.
It verifies the VTP domain is configured to use VTP version 2.
It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.
It verifies the VTP domain name is V1.

3.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain will consider their own VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch.
This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
This switch is configured to allows the network manager to maximize bandwidth by restricting traffic to specific network devices.

4. A network administrator is replacing a failed switch with a switch that was previously on the network. What precautionary step should the administrator take on the replacement switch to avoid incorrect VLAN information from propagating through the network?
Enable VTP pruning.
Change the VTP domain name.
Change the VTP mode to client.
Change all the interfaces on the switch to access ports.

5. Which two statements are true about VTP pruning? (Choose two.)
Pruning is enabled by default.
Pruning can only be configured on VTP servers.
Pruning must be configured on all VTP servers in the domain.
VLANs on VTP client-mode switches will not be pruned.
Pruning will prevent unnecessary flooding of broadcasts across trunks.

6. What are two features of VTP client mode operation? (Choose two.)
unable to add VLANs
can add VLANs of local significance
forward broadcasts out all ports with no respect to VLAN information
can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes
can forward VLAN information to other switches in the same VTP domain

7. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.
It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.
It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.
It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.

8.
Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches that are shown in the exhibit. What are two possible explanations for this? (Choose two.)
Switch1 is in client mode.
Switch2 is in server mode.
Switch2 is in transparent mode.
Switch1 is in a different management domain.
Switch1 has end devices that are connected to the ports.
Switch1 is using VTP version 1, and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.

9.

Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab_Network?
The switch operates as a VTP client.
The switch operates in VTP transparent mode.
The switch operates as a VTP server and deletes the existing VLAN configurationin the domain.
The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLANconfiguration in the domain.
The switch operates as a VTP server in the default VTP domain and does not affect the configuration in the existing VTP domain.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the provided command output, what could be done to correct the problem?
Switch SW2 must be configured as a VTP client.
The switches must be interconnected via an access link.
The switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name.
Both switches must be configured with the same VTP revision number.

11. Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)
Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.
Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.
Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes that are received from other switches.
Transparent mode switches originate updates about the status of their VLANS and inform other switches about that status.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN configuration based on those updates?
All switches receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.
Only switch SW2 receives updates and synchronizes VLAN information.
Only switches SW3 and SW4 receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.
SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 is in VTP server mode. Switches S2 and S3 are in client mode. An administrator accidentally disconnects the cable from F0/1 on S2. What will the effect be on S2?
S2 will retain the VLANs as of the latest known revision.
S2 will automatically transition to VTP transparent mode.
S2 will remove all VLANs from the VLAN database until the cable is reconnected.
S2 will automatically send a VTP request advertisement to 172.17.99.11 when the cable is reconnected.

14. What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?
A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
A port on the switch has been shutdown.
The switch is changed to the transparent mode.
A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.

15. How are VTP messages sent between switches in a domain?
Layer 2 broadcast
Layer 2 multicast
Layer 2 unicast
Layer 3 broadcast
Layer 3 multicast
Layer 3 unicast

16.

Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.
VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTPadvertisements.
Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.

17. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)
Switches must be connected via trunks.
The VTP domain name is case sensitive.
Transparent mode switches cannot be configured with new VLANs.
The VTP password is mandatory and case sensitive.
Switches that use VTP must have the same switch name.

18. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)
revision number
domain name
pruning
mode
domain password
version number

19. What statement describes the default propagation of VLANs on a trunked link?
only the native VLAN
VLANs 1 to 1005
only VLAN 1
all VLANs
no VLANs

20.

Refer to the exhibit. S2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to S2 before adding it to the production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After S2 was added to the production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What will solve the problem?
Reset the revision number on S2 with either the delete VTP command or by changing the domain name and then changing it back.
Re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they propagate throughout the network.
Change S1 to transparent VTP mode to reclaim all VLANs in vlan.dat and change back to server mode.
Change S2 to client mode so the VLANs will automatically propagate.

21.

Refer to the exhibit. S2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to S2 before adding it to the production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After S2 was added to the production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What will solve the problem?
Reset the revision number on S2 with either the delete VTP command or by changing the domain name and then changing it back.
Reset each switch back to an earlier configuration and then re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they propagate throughout the network.
Change S1 to transparent VTP mode to reclaim all VLANs in vlan.dat and change back to server mode.
Change S2 to client mode so the VLANs will automatically propagate.

22. Which two events will cause the VTP revision number on a VTP server to change? (Choose two.)
adding VLANs
rebooting the switch
changing the VTP domain name
changing the switch to a VTP client
changing interface VLAN designations

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ESwitching Chapter 5 CCNA 3 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – ESwitching Chapter 5 – CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0) - Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
bridge priority
switching speed
number of ports
base MAC address
switch location
memory size

2. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)
The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.
Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.
All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.
Root switches have all ports set as root ports.
Non-root switches each have only one root port.

3.

Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcastframe that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network?
Switch SW1 will block the broadcast and drop the frame.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. All hosts in the network will reply with a unicast frame sent to host PC1.
Switch SW1 will forward the traffic out all switch ports except the originating port as a unicast frame. All hosts in the network will reply with a unicast frame sent to switch SW1.

4. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

5. Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?
STP and RSTP have the same BPDU format and flag field information.
STP specifies backup ports. RSTP has only root ports, alternate ports, and designated ports.
STP port states are independent of port roles. RSTP ties together the port state and port role.
STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places designated ports into forwarding state immediately.

6. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
Configure all the interfaces on the switch as the static root ports.
Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
Assign a lower IP address to the switch than that of the other switches in the network.
Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.

7. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forwarduser data?
blocking
learning
disabling
listening
forwarding

8. When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?
bridge priority
MAC address
protocol
VLAN ID

9. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
election of the root bridge
blocking of the non-designated ports
selection of the designated trunk port
determination of the designated port for each segment

10. What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
one root bridge per network
all non-designated ports forwarding
one root port per non-root bridge
multiple designated ports per segment
one designated port per network

11.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?
Two hosts communicating between ports Fa0/2 and Fa0/4 have a cost of 38.
The priority was statically configured to identify the root.
STP is disabled on this switch.
The timers have been altered to reduce convergence time.

12. What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.)
the max-age timer
the spanning-tree hold down timer
the forward delay
the spanning-tree path cost
the blocking delay

13. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
shared
end-to-end
edge-type
boundary-type
point-to-many
point-to-point

14.

Refer to the exhibit. The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?
Spanning tree blocks Gi0/1 on S3.
Gi0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port.
Port priority makes Gi0/2 on S1 a root port.
S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.

15. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
to negotiate a trunk between switches
to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
to identify the shortest path to the root bridge
to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree

16. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to theforwarding port elected for every Ethernet LAN segment that links two switches?
alternate
backup
designated
edge

17. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)
PortFast is Cisco proprietary.
PortFast can negatively effect DHCP services.
PortFast is used to more quickly prevent and eliminate bridging loops.
Enabling PortFast on trunks that connect to other switches improves convergence.
If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a forwarding state.

18. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
immediately loses its edge status
inhibits the generation of a TCN
goes immediately to a learning state
disables itself
becomes a normal spanning-tree port

19.

Refer to the exhibit. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?
Router_1 will drop the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

20. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)
RSTP uses a faster algorithm to determine root ports.
RSTP introduced the extended system ID to allow for more than 4096 VLANs.
Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.
Like STP PortFast, an RSTP edge port that receives a BPDU loses its edge port status immediately and becomes a normal spanning-tree port.
Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.
Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.

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ESwitching Chapter 6 CCNA 3 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – ESwitching Chapter 6 – CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0) - Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. What are the steps which must be completed in order to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-on-a-stick?

Configure the physical interfaces on the router and enable a routing protocol.
Create the VLANs on the router and define the port membership assignments on the switch.
Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and enable a routing protocol on the router.
Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and configure subinterfaces on the router matching the VLANs.

2.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is routing between networks 192.168.10.0/28 and 192.168.30.0/28. PC1 can ping R1 interface F0/1, but cannot ping PC3. What is causing this failure?
PC1 and PC3 are not in the same VLAN.
The PC3 network address configuration is incorrect.
The S1 interface F0/11 should be assigned to VLAN30.
The F0/0 and F0/1 interfaces on R1 must be configured as trunks.

3. Which statement is true about ARP when inter-VLAN routing is being used on the network?
When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, each subinterface has a separate MAC address to send in response to ARP requests.
When VLANs are in use, the switch responds to ARP requests with the MACaddress of the port to which the PC is connected.
When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, the router returns the MACaddress of the physical interface in response to ARP requests. 
When traditional inter-VLAN routing is in use, devices on all VLANs use the same physical router interface as their source of proxy ARP responses.

4. In which situation could individual router physical interfaces be used for InterVLAN routing, instead of a router-on-a-stick configuration?
a network with more than 100 subnetworks
a network with a limited number of VLANs
a network with experienced support personnel
a network using a router with one LAN interface

5.

Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is correctly configured for the VLANs that are displayed in the graphic. The configuration that is shown was applied to RTA to allow for interVLAN connectivity between hosts attached to Switch1. After testing the network, the administrator logged the following report: 
Hosts within each VLAN can communicate with each other.
Hosts in VLAN5 and VLAN33 are able to communicate with each other.
Hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 do not have connectivity to host in other VLANs.
Why are hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 unable to communicate with hosts in different VLANs?
The router interface is shut down.
The VLAN IDs do not match the subinterface numbers.
All of the subinterface addresses on the router are in the same subnet.
The router was not configured to forward traffic for VLAN2.
The physical interface, FastEthernet0/0, was not configured with an IP address.

6. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?
The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.
The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.
Reliability of both subinterfaces is poor because ARP is timing out.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.

8.

Refer to the exhibit. The commands for a router to connect to a trunked uplink are shown in the exhibit. A packet is received from IP address 192.168.1.54. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

9.

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could account for this failure?
PC1 and R1 interface F0/0.1 are on different subnets.
The encapsulation is missing on the R1 interface F0/0.
An IP address has not been assigned to the R1 physical interface.
The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The no shutdown command has not been issued on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.
A routing protocol must be configured on the network in order for the inter-VLANrouting to be successful.
Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.17.10.0/24 and 172.17.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.
Hosts in this network must be configured with the IP address that is assigned to the router physical interface as their default gateway.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the network designshown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
This design will not scale easily.
The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.
This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.
This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.
This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and the router.
If the physical interfaces between the switch and router are operational, the devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.

12. Devices on the network are connected to a 24-port Layer 2 switch that is configured with VLANs. Switch ports 0/2 to 0/4 are assigned to VLAN 10. Ports 0/5 to 0/8 are assigned to VLAN 20, and ports 0/9 to 0/12 are assigned to VLAN 30. All other ports are assigned to the default VLAN. Which solution allows all VLANs to communicate between each other while minimizing the number of ports necessary to connect the VLANs?
Configure ports 0/13 to 0/16 with the appropriate IP addresses to perform routingbetween VLANs.
Add a router to the topology and configure one FastEthernet interface on the router with multiple subinterfaces for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30.
Obtain a router with multiple LAN interfaces and configure each interface for a separate subnet, thereby allowing communication between VLANs.
Obtain a Layer 3 switch and configure a trunk link between the switch and router, and configure the router physical interface with an IP address on the native VLAN.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/0 on router R1 is connected to port Fa0/1 on switch S1. After the commands shown are entered on both devices, thenetwork administrator determines that the devices on VLAN 2 are unable to ping the devices on VLAN 1. What is the likely problem?
R1 is configured for router-on-a-stick, but S1 is not configured for trunking.
R1 does not have the VLANs entered in the VLAN database.
Spanning Tree Protocol is blocking port Fa0/0 on R1.
The subinterfaces on R1 have not been brought up with the no shutdowncommand yet.

14. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?
Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.
Interconnect the VLANs via the two additional FastEthernet interfaces.

15. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?
Traditional routing is only able to use a single switch interface. Router-on-a-stick can use multiple switch interfaces.
Traditional routing requires a routing protocol. Router-on-a-stick only needs to route directly connected networks.
Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port. 
Traditional routing uses multiple paths to the router and therefore requires STP. Router-on-a-stick does not provide multiple connections and therefore eliminates the need for STP.

16. What two statements are true regarding the use of subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.)
subinterfaces have no contention for bandwidth
more switch ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
fewer router ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
simpler Layer 3 troubleshooting than with traditional inter-VLAN routing
less complex physical connection than in traditional inter-VLAN routing

17. Which three elements must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
one subinterface per VLAN
one physical interface for each subinterface
one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
one trunked link per VLAN
a management domain for each subinterface
a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

18.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?
Port 0/4 is not active.
Port 0/4 is not a member of VLAN1.
Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.
Port 0/4 is using the wrong trunking protocol.

19. Which two statements are true about the interface fa0/0.10 command? (Choose two.)
The command applies VLAN 10 to router interface fa0/0.
The command is used in the configuration of router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing.
The command configures a subinterface.
The command configures interface fa0/0 as a trunk link.
Because the IP address is applied to the physical interface, the command does not include an IP address.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC2 can successfully ping the F0/0 interface on R1. PC2 cannot ping PC1. What might be the reason for this failure?
R1 interface F0/1 has not been configured for subinterface operation.
S1 interface F0/6 needs to be configured for operation in VLAN10.
S1 interface F0/8 is in the wrong VLAN.
S1 port F0/6 is not in VLAN10.

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ESwitching Chapter 1 CCNA 3 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – ESwitching Chapter 1 – CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0) - Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical?

access layer
core layer
data-link layer
distribution layer
network layer
physical layer

2. Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.)
low port density
high forwarding rate
high latency level
support link aggregation
predefined number of ports

3. Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?
convergence
redundant links
link aggregation
network diameter

4. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?
application
access
distribution
network
core

5. What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network?
Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers.
The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex.
A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage. 
QoS issues are greatly reduced.
There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles?
Implement Layer 3 switching on S1 to reduce the packet processing load on D1 and D2. Install all security processing on S1 to reduce network traffic load.
Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet.
Move all HR assets out of the data center and connect them to S1. Use Layer 3 security functions on S1 to deny all traffic into and out of S1.
Perform all port access and Layer 3 security functions on C1.

7. Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
security policies
Power over Ethernet
switch port security
quality of service
Layer 3 functionality
end user access to network

8. Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model?
Layer 1
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5

9. Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision?
Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4

10. Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model? (Choose two.)
Power over Ethernet
load balancing across redundant trunk links
redundant components
Quality of Service
link aggregation

11. A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.)
forwarding rate
traffic flow analysis
expected future growth
number of required core connections
number of hubs that are needed in the access layer to increase performance

12. Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure?
PoE
redundancy
aggregation
access lists

13. At which heirarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed?
core layer
distribution layer
access layer
entry layer

14. For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network?
Power over Ethernet
quality of service
switch port security
inter-VLAN routing

15. A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.)
port security
security policies
10 Gigabit Ethernet
quality of service (QoS)
hot-swappable hardware 
Power over Ethernet (PoE)

16. Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?
core only
distribution and core
access and distribution
access, distribution, and core

17. What statement best describes a modular switch?
a slim-line chassis
allows interconnection of switches on redundant backplane
defined physical characteristics
flexible characteristics

18. Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network?
application
access
distribution
network
core

19. A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three stackable switches. Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology?
StackWise technology allows up to eight ports to be bound together to increase available bandwidth.
StackWise technology allows the switch to deliver power to end devices by using existing Ethernet cabling.
StackWise technology allows the switch capabilities and ports to be expanded by the addition of line cards.
StackWise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully redundant backplane.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3 connected to both SW1 and Sw2?
scalability
security
redundancy
maintainability

Read more ...

ESwitching Chapter 2 CCNA 3 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – ESwitching Chapter 2 – CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0) - Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. If a network administrator enters these commands on a switch, what will be the result? 

Switch1(config-line)# line console 0
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
to secure the console port with the password “cisco”
to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available
to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password
to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access

2. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?
user EXEC mode
privileged EXEC mode
global configuration mode
interface configuration mode

3. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?
The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secureremote connection to the switch.
The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.

4. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with “% Incomplete command”. The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information?
append ? to the last parameter
append a space and then ? to the last parameter
use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list
use the Tab key to show which options are available

5. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?
The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame.
The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.
The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.
The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.

6.
Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

7.

Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is “cisco.” What can be determined from the output shown?
The enable password is encrypted by default.
An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.
Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration. 
This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible.

8. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts.
Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks.
Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains.
Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.

9. Which statement is true about the command banner login “Authorized personnel Only” issued on a switch?
The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode.
The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.
The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: “banner motd” ” to be displayed.
The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after the command is entered into the switch.

10. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

11. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.)
The enable secret password command stores the configured password in plain text.
The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.
The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.
The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password.
Best practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used simultaneously.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?
1
2
4
6
7
8

13. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)
The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.

14. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks? (Choose two.)
Enable CDP on the switch.
Change passwords regularly.
Turn off unnecessary services.
Enable the HTTP server on the switch.
Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?
SW1 drops the frame.
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1.
SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on SW2.

16.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has decided to allow only Secure Shell connections to Switch1. After the commands are applied, the administrator is able to connect to Switch1 using both Secure Shell and Telnet. What is most likely the problem?
incorrect vty lines configured
incorrect default gateway address
incompatible Secure Shell version
missing transport input ssh command
vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet

17. Where is the startup configuration stored?
DRAM
NVRAM
ROM
startup-config.text

18.

Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
workstation C
workstations B and C
workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router
workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router

19.

Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?
Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down.
Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent.
Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config.
Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A?
hosts A and B
hosts B and C
hosts D and E
hosts A, B, and C
hosts B, C, D, and E
hosts A, B, C, D, E, and F

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ERouting Skill Exam CCNA 2 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – ERouting Skill Exam – CCNA Exploration: Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

Download erouting-skill-exam-ccna-2.pkt file

A. THE ABC ORGANIZATION HAS 3 SITES IN HOANKIEM, BAVI AND HOTAY DISTRICTS. YOU HAVE TO PERFORM THE TASKS:
1. All routers and PCs are assigned the correct IP Address scheme.
2. All PCs can connected to the web server google.com in the Internet.
3. All 5 PCs can communicate each others.

B. PERFORMING THE TASKS FOLLOW THIS PARAMETERS AND CONFIGURATION:

1. Basic configuration:
   Overall requirements: all network segments in the network diagram can connect to each other (example: ping and traceroute work for to reach all devices and PCs); users can telnet to get access to router CLI.
   • Router name
   • IP address and subnet mask
   • Clock rate: 64000
   • Password
     • The console, AUX, VTY lines are protected by clear text password (Unencrypted), password=”cisco”.
     • Set the enable password to enter privileged mode, password=”cisco”.
     • Set the secret password to enter privileged mode, password=”class”.
   • MOTD Banner and descriptions
     • MOTD Banner contains the name of the student who configures it. Example: “Hello, this is Ho Tay R1, configured by Nguyen Van A”.
     • Description of interface contains the name of the device it connects to. Example: “Connect to router Ba Vi”.
   • PCs: Set the PC’s IP addresses, subnet masks, and default gateways.
2. Routing:
   • R1 and R2 share the routing information using RIPv2.
   • R4 and R5 share the routing information using EIGRP 99 (configure Network command with wildcard mask).
   • R2, R5 and R6 share the routing information using OSPF 1 area 0.
     • Using Authentication type MD5 with keyID 178, key string cisco178.
     • In the multi-access network:
       • R6 is DR (priority 6)
       • R5 is BDR (priority 5)
       • R2 is DROther (priority 1)
   • Between RIPv2, EIGRP and OSPF areas configure redistribute where necessary with the metric.
     • To RIPv2: metric 5.
     • To EIGRP: bandwidth 1544, delay 20000, reliability 255, load 1, MTU 1500.
   • All routers have default route to the Internet.
   • R6 share to all routers a summary route to the extended LANs, that it can connect via interface FastEthernet 0/1.
3. IP Address:
   • RIPv2 area: 147.65.X.0/24
   • OSPF 1 area: 178.204.X.0/24
   • EIGRP 99 area: 160.99.X.0/24
     Note:
     • X value is map to Switch ID
     • Subnetwork between routers R1, R2: X=12
     • Subnetwork between routers R4, R5: X=45
     • Multi-access network between R2, R5, R6: X=3
   • Router’ Interface are assigned IP address with the 4th octet is RouterID. For Example: interface S0/0/0 of router HoTay_R5 has ip address: 160.99.45.5 where 3rd octet X=45, 4th octet=5 (on R5).
   • PCs have IP address with the 4th octet is 50. For Example: PC4: 160.99.4.50
4. Copy all router configuration to TFTP server using default file config name

Note:

• To pass this exam, student have to correct all connectivity tests and have more than70 points
• To see connectivity test -> Check results -> Connectivity test

Router BaVi_R1
(config)#router rip
(config-router)#version 2
(config-router)#no auto-summary
(config-router)#network 147.65.1.0
(config-router)#network 147.65.12.0

Router BaVi_R2
(config)#router rip
(config-router)#version 2
(config-router)#no auto-summary
(config-router)#network 147.65.2.0
(config-router)#network 147.65.12.0
(config-router)#redistribute ospf 1

(config)#router ospf 1
(config-router)#network 178.204.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
(config-router)#redistribute rip metric 5 subnets

(config)#interface fa0/0
(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1
(config-if)#ip ospf authentication message-digest
(config-if)#ip ospf message-digest-key 178 md5 cisco178

Router HoTay_R4
(config)#router eigrp 99
(config-router)#network 160.99.4.0 0.0.0.255
(config-router)#network 160.99.45.0 0.0.0.255

Router HoTay_R5
(config)#router eigrp 99
(config-router)#network 160.99.5.0 0.0.0.255
(config-router)#network 160.99.45.0 0.0.0.255
(config-router)#redistribute ospf 1 metric 1544 20000 255 1 1500
(config)#interface fa0/0

(config)#router ospf 1
(config-router)#network 178.204.3.2 0.0.0.255 area 0
(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 99 subnets

(config)#interface fa0/0
(config-if)#ip ospf priority 5
(config-if)#ip ospf authentication message-digest
(config-if)#ip ospf message-digest-key 178 md5 cisco178

Router HoanKiem_R6
(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
(config)#ip route 172.0.0.0 255.128.0.0 fa0/1

(config)#router ospf 1
(config-router)#network 178.204.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
(config-router)#network 178.204.6.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
(config-router)#redistribute static subnets
(config-router)#default-information originate

(config)#interface fa0/0
(config-if)#ip ospf priority 6
(config-if)#ip ospf authentication message-digest
(config-if)#ip ospf message-digest-key 178 md5 cisco178

Read more ...

ERouting Chapter 11 CCNA 2 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – ERouting Chapter 11 – CCNA Exploration: Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
2
156
1564
1785
1787

2.

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?
OSPF autonomous system IDs do not match.
OSPF process IDs do not match.
OSPF network types are identical.
OSPF hello or dead timers do not match.

3. A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?
All routes for the entire network will be present.
Directly connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.
Because the SPF algorithm has not completed all calculations, no routes will be in the table.
A summary route for all previously learned routes will automatically appear in therouting table until all LSPs have been received by the router.

4.

Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?
B(config)# int fa0/0
B(config-if)# router-id 192.168.1.5
B(config)# int lo0
B(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.5
B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5
B (config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# ip address 192.168.1.5

5.

Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?
A FULL adjacency is formed.
A 2WAY adjacency is formed.
Router2 will become the DR and Router1 will become the BDR.
Both routers will become DROTHERS.

6. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
bandwidth
bandwidth and hop count
bandwidth and reliability
bandwidth, load, and reliablity

7.

Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
HQ will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
Router A will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
Remote will be BDR for 10.5.0.0/16.

8. What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
root router
backup root router
domain router
backup domain router
designated router
backup designated router

9.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?
Router C cannot win a DR election under any circumstances.
If the link for interface 192.168.1.4 goes down, router B will become the new DR.
The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.
If a new router is added with a higher router ID than router D, it will become the DR.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?
B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.16.1.0 0.0.0.224 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.16.1.0 255.255.255.224 area 0
B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)
DR for network 192.168.1.200
BDR for network 192.168.1.200
DROTHER on 192.168.1.200
DR for network 192.168.1.204
BDR for network 192.168.1.204
DROTHER on network 192.168.1.204

12.

Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR. What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A? 
A(config)# interface fa0/0
A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
A will become the DR. D will become the BDR.
A will become the DR. C will remain the BDR.
D will remain the DR. A will become the BDR.
D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

13. What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?
192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.0.15/24
192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24
192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.31.0/24
192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24
192.168.16.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24

14.

Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?
RouterB takes over as DR and RouterD becomes the BDR.
RouterD becomes the BDR and RouterA remains the DR.
RouterD becomes the DR and RouterA becomes the BDR.
RouterC acts as the DR until the election process is complete.
RouterD becomes the DR and RouterB remains the BDR.
There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?
4
5
6
7
10

16. What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?
90
100
110
115
120

17.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10RouterB(config-router)# gateway-of-last-resort 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0/0

RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-network 172.16.6.6 0.0.0.3 area 0
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6

RouterB(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# redistribute ip default-route

18. Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)
Elections are always optional.
Elections are required in all WAN networks.
Elections are required in point-to-point networks.
Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
Elections are sometimes required in NBMA networks.

19.

Refer to the exhibit. What does the “2″ stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?
The number 2 is the autonomous system number.
The number 2 indicates the number of networks advertised by OSPF.
The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.
The number 2 indicates the priority of the OSPF process on this router.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps can the administrator take to accomplish this?
shut down the loop back interface
use the OSPF router-id 192.168.100.1 command
use the clear ip ospf process command
nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

21. Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?
any traffic through the router interfaces
routing database updates
hello packets
BPDU packets

22.

Refer to the exhibit. What does the “O*E2″ from the “O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0/1″ line represent?
an internal type 2 OSPF route.
an external OSPF route at least two hops away.
an external OSPF route from two different sources.
an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.
a default route.
The route was distributed into OSPF from a type 2 router.

23.

Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of commands will cause OSPF to be enabled for any R1 interface connected to the exhibited subnets?
R1(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0R1(config-router)# network 10.1.2.4 0.0.0.3 area 0R1(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0R1(config-router)# network 10.2.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0R1(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

24.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
2
110
1786
1.544

25. What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
area id
K-values
metric value
hello interval
network type
interface type

26.

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1, R2, and R3 have four local LANs attached. What is a correct set of network commands that will cause OSPF to be enabled for any R1 interface that is connected to its subnets?
R1(config-router)# network 10.10.1.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.7 area 0

R1(config-router)# network 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.7 area 0

R1(config-router)# network 10.10.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.1.8 0.0.0.3 area 0

R1(config-router)# network 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 10.10.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 10.10.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.7 area 0

27.

Refer to the exhibit. What OSPF packets will trigger the reset of the Dead Time counter?
hello packets
link-state update packets
link-state advertisement packets
OSPF routing database update packets

28.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 172.16.2.128 network with the subnet mask of 255.255.255.128?
25
110
196
306

29. Router R1 is participating in the OSPF routing protocol as well as the EIGRP routing protocol. If R1 learns of network 192.168.10.0/24 from both the OSPF and internal EIGRP routing protocols, how will the route appear in the routing table of R1?
Only the route learned from OSPF will appear in the routing table.
Only the route learned from EIGRP will appear in the routing table.
Both routes will appear in the routing table and they will be used for load balancing.
Neither route will appear in the routing table until the network administrator selects which one to use.

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