TSHOOT Chapter 6 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% - Take Assessment – TSHOOT Chapter 6 – CCNP TSHOOT: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012 1

1. Which statement is true about 6to4 tunneling and OSPF?

The neighbor command must be specified within OSPF router configuration mode to establish the tunnel.
The neighbor address must be specified on the tunnel interface.
OSPF will automatically send out its link state database to the destination of the tunnel.
x OSPF cannot be used when establishing a 6to4 tunnel.

2
[Picture X]
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the LAN complained that they cannot access the resources on the network. A network administrator issued the debug ip udp command on R2 to verify the DHCP server operation. On the basis of the provided output, what could be the possible cause of the problem?
x The ip dhcp pool command is missing from the R2 configuration.
The ip helper-address command is missing from the R2 configuration.
The ip dhcp excluded-addresses command is missing from the R2 configuration.
The domain-name command is missing from the R3 configuration.

3
Which three UDP ports are associated with messages that are forwarded by default by a DHCP relay agent? (Choose three.)
x 37
51
x 53
59
x 69
80

4
[Picture X]
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is a branch router and accesses all nonlocal networks via R1. The network administrator is troubleshooting why router R2 cannot access any external networks. Based on the output of the commands, what is the likely issue?
The default router for R1 is invalid.
The IPv6 address configured for R1 is invalid.
IPv6 unicast routing has not been enabled on R1.
R2 has not been configured for autoconfiguration.

5
The network administrator changed the DHCP address pool from 10.10.0.0/16 to 10.20.0.0/16 and is now receiving complaints from users that they are unable to connect to the Internet. The administrator issues the command show ip nat translations on the border router and observes that there are no active translations present. The administrator then verifies that connectivity to the Internet from the border router is present. What should the administrator do next?
Increase the size of the existing NAT pool.
Create a new NAT pool using the 10.20.0.0/16 address space.
Change from dynamic to static NAT for all outbound connections.
x Verify that the ACL is selecting the correct addresses for translation.

6
[Picture X]
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a static NAT entry on router R1 for the internal web server. However, external users still cannot connect to the web server. Which procedure would resolve this problem?
Delete the current static entry and issue the ip nat outside source static 10.0.0.10 209.165.200.226 command.
x Delete the current static entry and issue the ip nat inside source static 10.1.1.10 209.165.200.226 command.
For security reasons, an outside address cannot be mapped to an internal private address and therefore the web server should be configured with a valid public address.
Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source list command.

7
[Picture X]
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator created a static NAT translation. The purpose of the translation is to allow outside users to use the IP address 209.165.201.1 to connect to a server that is located on the internal network at IP address 172.16.6.3. However, users are unable to connect to the server by using the supplied address. What is the most probable cause of the problem?
There is no outside global address specified.
The 172.16.0.0/16 network has not been advertised to the outside world.
Dynamic NAT must be used to allow an outside user to connect to the server.
x The network administrator reversed the addresses in the mapping command.
No access list has been configured to select the traffic that is allowed to connect to the server.

8
Which statement correctly describes the problem when NAT and IPsec implementation coexist in the network?
NAT changes the encryption keys that are used by IPsec during the key negotiation processes.
x NAT changes the IP header fields, and those changes can conflict with the integrity of IPsec protocols.
NAT changes the source and destination IP addresses that are encapsulated inside the IPsec packets.
NAT changes the TCP and UDP transport protocols that are embedded in the payload of the IPsec packets.

9
[Picture X]
Refer to the exhibit. Users on LAN_1 complained that they cannot communicate with the other users on the network. A network administrator issued show ip dhcp conflict command to verify the DHCP server operation on the router. Based on the provided outputs, what could be done to remedy the problem?
Configure the DHCP pool for a larger scope of IP addresses.
Issue the dhcp services command on router R2.
Issue the ip helper-address command under the Fa0/1 interface.
Configure the IP addresses that must be excluded from the DHCP pool.

10
[Picture X]
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 cannot get DHCP addresses from router R3, which is configured as a DHCP server. After issuing the show ip socket command and troubleshooting the problem, a network administrator verifies that the R1 and R2 interfaces are up and operational. Based on the provided output, what could be the possible cause of the problem?
x The DHCP services are disabled on R3.
The IP helper address is missing from the R3 configuration.
The IP addresses from the DHCP pool have been exhausted.
Illegal addresses have been assigned to the interfaces of routers R1 and R2.

11
[Picture X]
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about DHCP snooping on Switch2? (Choose two.)
DHCP snooping is enabled for interface FastEthernet0/13 and interface FastEthernet0/14.
x DHCP snooping is not enabled for interface FastEthernet0/15 and interface FastEthernet0/16.
x DHCP snooping is configured for VLAN 10.
DHCP snooping is configured for VLAN 2.
Any interface assigned to VLAN 10 could host a DHCP server.

12
[Picture X]
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured NAT on router R1. However, R1 does not translate addresses when hosts from the 10.0.0.0 /24 LAN attempt to access the Internet. Which configuration change would correct this situation?
Append the overload keyword to the ip nat inside source list 1 pool NATPOOL command.
Change the NAT pool to be in the same subnet as the IP address of s0/0/0.
Change the netmask of the NATPOOL to 255.255.255.224.
Enter the no ip nat inside source static 10.0.0.10 209.165.200.226 command.
x Make interface Fa0/0 the inside NAT interface and S0/0/0 the outside NAT interface.

13
[Picture X]
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement accurately describes the IPv6 routing configuration?
The command ipv6 route 5432::/48 null0 was entered on the router.
The network 4000::2/128 was learned via a routing protocol.
The command ipv6 route 5000::/64 null0 was entered on the router.
The network 4001::1/128 is unreachable.

14
[Picture X]
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured an OSPF neighbor to correct a reachability issue in a network that is using OSPF over a 6to4 tunnel. The configuration did not solve the issue, and an error message was displayed. What should the administrator do to correct the problem?
Change the version of OSPF to version 3.
Add the ipv6 ospf network broadcast command to tunnel interface 0.
Configure an OSPF neighbor on R2 that points to the tunnel endpoint of R1.
x Configure static routes on both R1 and R2 to the IPv6 address of the tunnel endpoint of the neighbor.

15
[Picture X]
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the LAN complained that they cannot access the Internet. Based on the provided output, what could be the possible cause of the problem?
Too few addresses are assigned to the NAT pool.
The NAT pool is configured with the wrong netmask.
An incorrect ACL is referenced during the NAT translation process.
The configurations for the inside and outside interfaces are reversed.

16
[Picture X]
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is having issues setting up router R4 in a IPv6 network. What problem is indicated from the router output?
x IPv6 routing needs to be enabled.
The interface also requires an IPv4 address.
A routing protocol for IPv6 must be enabled.
IPv4 routes should be redistributed into IPv6.

17
What are the three roles a router may assume with respect to DHCP? (Choose three.)
x server
forwarder
x client
remote agent
x relay agent
supplicant

18
What are two things to be taken into consideration when NAT is configured in the network? (Choose two.)
x the protocols that are used in the network
x the port numbers that are used by the applications
the type of interface that is configured for NAT
the scope of the IP addresses that are configured in the NAT pool
the type of ACLs that are filtering the traffic from source to destination

19
[Picture X]
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented Network Address Translation (NAT) on router R1. However, hosts on the inside LAN cannot connect to addresses outside of the corporate network. Which option correctly identifies the problem?
Interface Fa0/0 should be configured as the outside NAT interface and S0/0/0 as the inside NAT interface.
NAT cannot use named access control lists.
x The ACL is referring to the wrong internal network.
The NAT-POOL should have included the S0/0/0 interface IP address.
The overload keyword has not been appended to the ip nat inside source command.
The static NAT entry IP address is not included in the NAT-POOL.

20
Which IPv6 address is used by OSPFv3 as a next hop?
x the link-local address of the neighbor
the loopback address of the neighbor
the global unicast address of the neighbor
the default gateway of the neighbor

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Take Assessment – TSHOOT Chapter 7 – CCNP TSHOOT: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. A network is experiencing performance degradation on an access switch where user traffic is subject to granular QoS policy and security inspection. Which switch component or components should be inspected by the network administrator to help determine the issue?

the ingress interfaces only
the egress interfaces only
the forwarding plane only
the control plane only
the forwarding plane and the control plane
the ingress and egress interfaces, the forwarding plane, and the control plane

2. A network administrator has configured a Cisco IOS device to provide server load balancing (SLB) for the corporate web server. What is required on the client side to ensure proper load balancing?
Clients should initiate connections to the virtual IP address (VIP).
Clients should initiate connections to the IP address of the predictor.
Port numbers should be added to each client request in order to get routed to the correct server.
Clients must be readdressed so that they are equally distributed throughout the network address space.

3.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is investigating performance issues of the access switch. On the basis of the provided outputs, what conclusion can be made about the switch performance?
The ratio between the FCS errors and the number of received errors is normal and does not require further investigation.
The ratio between the FCS errors and the number of giant frames that are received on the switch is excessively high and requires further investigation.
The ratio between the FCS errors and the number of broadcast and multicast traffic frames that are received on the switch is normal and does not require further investigation.
The ratio between the FCS errors and the number of unicast, broadcast, and multicast traffic frames that are received on the switch is excessively high and requires further investigation.

4. What reported error counter describes frames that do not end with an integral number of octets and have a bad cyclic redundancy check (CRC)?
FCS-Err
Xmit-Err
Align-Err
Rcv-Err
undersize
runt

5. What must a system administrator do to allow NBAR to recognize a new protocol without having to upgrade the Cisco IOS image?
Enable the autodiscovery feature on the interface.
Upgrade the version of NBAR that is running on the device.
Because NBAR will automatically discover new applications, the administrator does not need to do anything.
Load an appropriate Packet Description Language Module (PDLM).

6. What can cause a memory leak on a router?
an IOS bug
incorrect configuration registry code
buffer overflow
too many remote users logged into the router

7.
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the network are complaining that transferring large files to the SRV1 server takes hours. A network administrator runs a few tests on both switches to investigate the problem. On the basis of the provided outputs, what could be the possible reason for problem?
High CPU utilization is causing excessive FCS errors on ASW_1.
A duplex mismatch is causing a high volume of late collisions on DSW_1.
Slow STP convergence is causing a high volume of single collisions on DSW_1.
An unsupported Auto-MDIX feature on both switches is causing a high volume of multi collisions.

8. How can an administrator determine if a memory leak is present in a router?
The show interface command will show that the input queue has reached the maximum capacity.
The show buffers command will show no free buffers.
The show memory allocating-process totals command will show low free space.
The show diagnostics command will show that the DRAM size has reached maximum capacity.

9. Which three hardware components are common in the architectures of all Catalyst switch families? (Choose three.)
route processors
modules
interfaces
forwarding hardware
control plane hardware
content-addressable memory

10.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enables AutoQoS on a PPP link that is currently active. Once AutoQoS is enabled the link goes down. What should the administrator do to correct this problem?
Disable multilink on the PPP connection.
Decrease the multilink threshold value to allow AutoQoS to run.
Change the encapsulation to HDLC because AutoQoS does not support PPP.
Investigate the configured bandwidth on the PPP link to ensure it is sufficient, then remove and reapply the AutoQoS configuration.

11. A network administrator keeps receiving “%SYS-2-MALLOCFAIL” console messages. Further investigation reveals that the buffer pool continues to grow. The CCO knowledge base identified the cause of the problem as a result of a buffer memory leak due to an IOS software bug. What should the administrator do to rectify this problem?
Reload the router.
Reinstall older Cisco IOS software.
Upgrade the Cisco IOS software to a version that fixes the issue.
Power down the router and wait a few minutes before reloading it.
Change the configuration register settings to bypass the loading of the IOS.
Change the configuration register settings to bypass the loading of the startup configuration file.

12.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the switching path on a router. Based on the exhibited output, what can be concluded?
Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) has been implemented.
Fast switching has been enabled.
Process switching has been enabled.
Switching has been disabled.

13. A network administrator plans to implement QoS in the network by using the Cisco AutoQoS tool. What should be done in the first phase of the automation process?
In order to apply QoS policies, each interface should be configured with the auto qos command.
Cisco Express Forwarding should be disabled on each target interface by the use of the no ip cef command.
The network device should be configured to capture network traffic statistics via the use of the auto discovery qos interface configuration command.
Via the use of the ip nbar protocol-discovery command, each interface should be configured to gather information about the applications that are known to NBAR.

14.
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the operation of interface FastEthernet 0/2?
It is connected to a hub.
It is operating within acceptable limits.
It is carrying 802.1Q formatted frames.
It has a duplex mismatch with the connected device.

15.
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the exhibited output?
There is a physical layer problem.
The interface is performing normally.
The Frame Relay PVC is not established.
There is an unacceptable level of input errors.

16. What are three indicators of a cabling issue on a switch? (Choose three.)
alignment error
excessive collisions
giant frames
invalid frame size
late collisions
transmit error

17.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has noticed that the IP SLA probe did not run as expected. What should the administrator do to correct this problem?
Adjust the clock frequency on R1.
Configure the router as a stratum 1 time source.
Remove the forever keyword from the configuration.
Configure NTP on the router to point to a different time source.

18.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show interfaces command, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
The interface is currently shutdown.
The interface is displaying symptoms of a buffer leak.
This is an example of a wedged interface.
The interface has been configured with the no ip route-cache command.
The serial interface is being subjected to a denial of service (DoS) attack.

19. A network administrator wishes to use debug commands to observe how a router processes each individual packet on an interface. Which packet switching solution should be implemented on the interface to accomplish this task?
Enable Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) using the ip cef comand.
Enable Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) using the no ip cef command.
Enable fast switching using the ip route-cache command.
Enable fast switching using the no ip route-cache command.
Enable process switching using the ip route-cache command.
Enable process switching using the no ip route-cache command.

20. Which three Cisco packet switching methods must a network administrator be familiar with in order to troubleshoot a router performance issue that is related to the switching path? (Choose three.)
autonomous switching
Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)
fast switching
optimum switching
process switching
silicon switching

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TSHOOT Chapter 5 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% - Take Assessment – TSHOOT Chapter 5 – CCNP TSHOOT: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to load-balance the traffic that is coming from the LAN that is attached to router R1 and going to the 10.10.10.0/24 network. The output from the routing table on R1 reveals that the traffic is flowing through router R3 only. What is the reason for this traffic behavior?
RIP redistribution into the EIGRP routing process is not performed on R4.
EIGRP does not load-balance automatically over equal-cost paths.
A variance command is missing under the EIGRP configuration on R3 and R4.
The seed metrics should be configured with the default metrics command under the EIGRP process on R3.
The passive-interface default command on R4 is blocking the RIP updates that are being propagated into the EIGRP routing domain.

2.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator first issued the show ip route command and then decided to filter the output of the routing table via the show ip route 128.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 longer-prefixes command. Which prefixes will be displayed in the output?
all IP prefixes
IP prefixes 10.10.1.0 and 10.134.2.0
IP prefixes 172.16.30.0 and 172.30.40.0
IP prefixes 10.10.1.0, 10.129.30.0, 10.134.2.0, and 10.230.40.0

3. What occurs immediately following the encapsulation of data into IP packets during the transmission of data between source and destination hosts?
The source host sends the packet to the default gateway address.
An ARP request is made to determine the MAC address of the destination host.
The source host determines if the destination network is the same or different from its own local subnet.
The sending host encapsulates the data into a frame addressed to the MAC address of the destination host.
The routing table is consulted to determine which interface to forward the packet through based on the longest prefix match.

4.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator uses the output of the show ip cef exact-route command to verify the routing operations. Which statement represents the information that the network administrator will gather from the output?
Traffic that is sourced from 172.17.249.252 will use 192.168.49.252 as a next hop.
The destination 172.17.249.252 can be reached via the next hop address 10.10.10.1.
The destination 10.10.10.1 can be reached via the next hop address 172.17.249.252.
Traffic that is sourced from 10.10.10.1 and destined to 172.17.249.252 will go out the FastEthernet1/0 interface.

5. Which data structure does an EIGRP enabled router use to track devices from which it receives EIGRP hello packets?
Forwarding Information Base
interface table
neighbor table
routing table
topology table

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a routing related problem. Which two facts can be concluded based on the generated output of the show logging command? (Choose two.)
Interface Serial 0/1 has been incorrectly configured with IP address 192.168.2.2.
Interface Serial 0/1 is flapping.
Router R1 has established a stable IBGP peering relationship with the neighbor at IP address 192.168.2.2.
Router R1 has established a stable EBGP peering relationship with the neighbor at IP address 192.168.2.2.
Router R1 is unable to establish a stable BGP peering relationship with the neighbor at IP address 192.168.2.2.
The BGP-5-ADJCHANGE message indicates an error with the subnet mask for the specified prefix.

7. Which two data structures are used by Cisco Express Forwarding to improve the performance of IP packet switching processes on routers? (Choose two.)
adjacency table
Forwarding Information Base
interface table
neighbor table
routing table
topology table

8.
Refer to the exhibit. Mutual redistribution has been configured on router R7 between the OSPF and EIGRP routing processes. What could be the reason that EIGRP routes are not being properly redistributed into the OSPF process?
The OSPF metric configuration is missing for the EIGRP routes that are redistributed into OSPF.
The subnets keyword configuration is missing for the EIGRP routes that are redistributed into OSPF.
There is an incorrect EIGRP metric configuration for the OSPF routes that are redistributed into EIGRP
There is an incorrect external route type configuration for the EIGRP routes that are redistributed into OSPF.

9.
Refer to the exhibit. In the show ip route output, what is the source of the 72.163.4.0 /24 route?
It comes from a stub area router.
It comes from a normal area router.
It comes from an area border router (ABR).
It comes from an autonomous system border router (ASBR).

10. Which three pieces of information are found in the BGP neighbor table? (Choose three.)
the BGP router ID of any peer
the routes that are redistributed into BGP
the peer synchronization configuration
the number of exchanged prefixes with a neighbor
the AS number of the peer
the IGP that is configured on the BGP peer

11. When route redistribution is being configured from another routing protocol into EIGRP, what value is used when no seed metric is configured?
a value equal to the minimum possible value
a value equal to the maximum possible value
a value equal to the cost of a directly connected segment
a value equal to the redistributing protocol

12.
Refer to the exhibit. Router RTA and router RTB have been configured to exchange routing information using OSPF. However, both routers never transition beyond 2WAY state. What is the cause of this problem?
An access list on one side is blocking OSPF Hellos.
Authentication is enabled on only one side.
There is a switch problem and multicast capabilities are broken.
A priority of 0 has been configured on RTA and RTB interfaces.
There is a misconfigured neighbor statement on RTA or RTB.

13.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is unable to have two BGP peers exchange routing information. Which solution would correct this problem?
Router R1 should be configured with the neighbor 2.2.2.2 ebgp-multihop 1 command and R2 with the neighbor 1.1.1.1 ebgp-multihop 1 command.
Router R1 should be configured with the neighbor 2.2.2.2 ebgp-multihop 3 command and R2 with the neighbor 1.1.1.1 ebgp-multihop 3 command.
Router R1 should be configured with the neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 300 command.
The loopback interfaces on each router should be removed.

14. A network administrator is adding a new router into an existing OSPF network and notices that the router is stuck in the INIT state. What is a possible cause of this problem?
There is a mismatched interface MTU.
An access list is blocking OSPF hellos.
Duplicate Router IDs are configured on the new router.
Layer 2 switches between the two routers are not multicast aware.

15. A network administrator issued the show ip cef command to verify the routing operations on the device. Which table entries will be present in the output?
the topology table entries
the routing table entries
the Routing Information Base (RIB) entries
the Forwarding Information Base (FIB) entries

16.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the shown output, what is the resulting effect on the routing table?
A route to the network 172.16.0.0 /30 will not be added to the routing table.
A route to the network 172.16.0.0 /30 will be added to the routing table and have a metric of 1310720.
A route to the network 172.16.0.0 /30 will be added to the routing table and have an administrative distance of 90.
A route to the network 172.16.0.0 /30 will be added to the routing table with an outbound interface of FastEthernet0/0.

17.
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the origin of the route to the 172.16.0.0 network?
The route is manually entered.
The route is directly connected to RouterHQ2.
The route is learned via redistribution into EIGRP.
The route is summarized by EIGRP at the advertising router.

18.
Refer to the exhibit. What is a possible reason that Router2 is not receiving OSPF routing updates on interface FastEthernet0/1?
Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as passive for OSPF.
The OSPF priority of interface FastEthernet0/1 is set to zero.
OSPF is not enabled on the neighboring router that is connected to FastEthernet0/1.
There is no OSPF network statement for the network to which interface FastEthernet0/1 belongs.

19.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is replacing an existing router and configuring EIGRP authentication on the Serial 0/0/0 port. When viewing the routing table, the administrator notices that the entries for the remote networks are not listed. The administrator enters the debug eigrp packet command and notices this output:
R1# *Nov 17 01:26:31.935: EIGRP: Serial0/0/0: ignored packet from 172.20.1.2, opcode = 5 (authentication off or key-chain missing)
Based on the information in the running configuration and the output from the debug command, what is a possible reason for the missing routes?
Automatic summarization must be disabled.
EIGRP is not enabled on the correct interface.
An incorrect keychain name has been entered under the serial interface.
The EIGRP autonomous system does not match the interface authentication autonomous system.

20. What is the result of issuing the ip route profile command on a router?
The router will log each route redistribution entry to the configured syslog server.
The router will track the number of routing table changes that occur over 5 second sampling intervals.
The router will send console messages each time a route is installed or removed from the routing table.
Until the buffer is full, the router will archive a copy of the routing table each time the topology changes.

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TSHOOT Chapter 4 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% - Take Assessment – TSHOOT Chapter 4 – CCNP TSHOOT: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

Note - choose x for answer true

1
Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be made based on the output of the show mac address-table command. (Choose two.)
x Port Fa0/6 is configured as a trunk.
x Port Fa0/2 will not have the MAC address expire.
Port Fa0/5 is configured for VLAN 30.
VLAN 100 is connected to a hub.
VLAN 20 was learned via a neighboring switch.

2
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
The Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP) is configured on router R1.
Router R1 is the standby router.
The output was generated by the show glbp brief command.
The output was generated by the show standby brief command.
x The output was generated by the show vrrp brief command.
x The Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) is configured on router R1.

3
Refer to the exhibit. A forwarding loop has been created between switches A, B, and D. Given the output generated by the show spanning-tree vlan command on switches B and D, what could be the cause of the problem?
Switches B and D are running different versions of STP.
x Switches B and D have not agreed on the STP root for VLAN 10.
Switches A and B are not configured as a trunk link.
Switches A and B are not configured as an EtherChannel.

4
What is one of the first indications that spanning tree has failed and a broadcast storm may be underway?
Access ports move into blocking state.
All 802.1Q trunks shut down unexpectedly.
MAC address tables rapidly fill and prevent data frame forwarding.
x Routers or Layer 3 switches run at a very high CPU utilization load.

5
The command show ip cef displays the contents of which table?
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
IP routing
x Forwarding Information Base (FIB)
adjacency
Routing Information Base (RIB)

6
A network administrator created an EtherChannel that consists of four physical links. Upon examination of the log files, the administrator observed the following message.
Nov 30 15:05:45: %EC-5-CANNOT_BUNDLE2: Gi1/1 is not compatible with Gi1/2 and will be suspended
What is the cause of this error message?
The switch was not able to create the EtherChannel link.
Only one switch is properly configured for EtherChannel.
x The switch has suspended a physical link because of incompatibilities.
There is an uneven distribution of traffic on the EtherChannel bundle members.
The Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) is incompatible with the version of the IOS that is running on the switch.

7
What is true of a switched virtual interface (SVI) on a Layer 3 switch?
It carries traffic for multiple VLANs.
It is a physical interface in a single VLAN.
It is created when the associated VLAN is created.
x It provides a default gateway for hosts in a VLAN.

8
What is the purpose of the no switchport command?
to disable the interface
x to make the interface a routed port
to initiate spanning tree on the interface
to change the interface to a trunk port

9
The show mls cef command is available on which platform?
3560
3750
4500
x 6500
2960

10
Which IETF solution should be used to provide first hop redundancy in a multivendor network environment?
Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)
Forwarding Information Base (FIB)
Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)
Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)
switch virtual interface (SVI)
x Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)

11
About which process can detailed information be found from the output of the show platform forward command on the Catalyst 3560, 3750, and 4500 platforms?
errors
x forwarding
counters
buffering
queuing

12
Which three types of ports or interfaces can be affected by the Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
routed
x access
x trunk
loopback
null
x Switch Virtual Interface (SVI)

13
A network administrator received several complaints from end users that they are unable to access any resources on the Layer 2 switched network. The administrator unplugs one of the redundant links that is running to the affected area of the network, and the users report that the problem disappears. When the cable is reconnected, the problem reappears. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
The network cable is faulty.
The immediately upstream switch is faulty.
x Spanning tree has failed or has been disabled.
The link cable is connected to an incorrect VLAN.
The switch port is improperly configured as an access port.

14
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator decided to include R3, a new router, as part of the already converged HSRP group. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, which router will assume the active role and which router will become standby for the HSRP group 1 when R3 becomes operational?
Router R2 will become active only if router R1 fails.
Routers R1 and R2 will keep the active and the standby roles.
x Router R1 will keep the active role, and R3 will assume the standby role.
Router R3 will become active, and router R1 will assume the standby role.

15
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 was recently included in HSRP group 1. On the basis of the debug standby terse output that is provided, which statement is true?
R2 will keep the active role, and R1 will become a standby router.
x R1 has promoted itself to the role of active router and R2 has assumed the role of standby router.
R2 promoted itself to the active role when its hold-down timer expired before it saw a better candidate for the role of active router.
R1 and R2 will alternate between the active and the standby role because of a conflict in the HSRP priority that is configured on the routers.

16
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting an HSRP related problem and confirms that router R1 is the active HSRP router. Which command could be issued on a Windows host to verify the virtual IP and MAC address are the same as configured on R1?
x C:\> arp -a
C:\> ipconfig /renew
C:\> netstat
C:\> pingvirtual-ip
C:\> tracertvirtual-ip

17
A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue in a Layer 2 switched network. After issuing the show mac-address-table command on the access switch, the administrator observes that there is no entry for the host that is experiencing the problems. The host machine is powered on and appears to be functioning normally. What can be deduced from this?
ARP does not function on the host machine.
The host machine is connected to the wrong port on the local switch.
x The host machine does not have a physical connection to the switched network.
The show mac-address-table command only displays the MAC address of devices that are connected to the native VLAN.
The show mac-address-table command only displays the destination MAC address, so there should not be an entry for the host machine until data is sent to it.

18
A switch console displays the message %SPANTREE-2-CHNL_MISCFG. What does this mean?
x The ports that are configured for EtherChannel have been disabled because of an inconsistency in the configuration.
The root bridge for the Spanning Tree Protocol cannot be found.
The spanning-tree timers on the port do not match the timers on the port of the neighboring switch.
The PortFast feature has been enabled, but a switch has been detected on that port.

19
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information that is presented in the exhibit, which statement is true?
The Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP) has been configured.
x The reachable IP address of the standby router is 10.1.1.2.
Router R1 is currently the standby router.
Router R1 is using the default priority value.
The IP address 10.1.1.254 is a loopback address on router R1.
The Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) has been configured.

20
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured routers R1 and R2 as part of HSRP group 1. After the routers have been reloaded, a user on Host1 complained of lack of connectivity to the Internet The network administrator issued the show standby brief command on both routers to verify the HSRP operations. In addition, the administrator observed the ARP table on Host1. Which entry should be seen in the ARP table on Host1 in order to gain connectivity to the Internet?
the IP address and the MAC address of R1
x the virtual IP address and the virtual MAC address for the HSRP group 1
the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R1
the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R2

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TSHOOT Chapter 3 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% - Take Assessment – TSHOOT Chapter 3 – CCNP TSHOOT: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

Note - choose x for answer true

1

[Picture 5]
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator used an extended ping to verify connectivity to a remote location. The ping indicated a 50 percent packet loss. What could be the cause of the problem?
NAT is filtering the echo reply packets.
The packet size is exceeding the MTU.
An ACL is blocking the echo reply packets.
An ACL is blocking the echo request packets.
x Load balancing is occurring with packet loss on one path.

2
Which two symptoms would the show processes cpu command be helpful in troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
no link lights
x failed Telnet sessions to router
output queue drops
x input queue drops
excessive collisions

3
The administrator would like to see the commands that are associated with the serial1/0 interface. The administrator enters the command show running-config | section interface serial1/0 but does not receive a response. What could be the problem?
The interface is down.
The interface does not have any commands associated with it.
x The interface serial1/0 keyword looks for an exact match and should specify interface Serial1/0.
The administrator should have entered the command show run | i interface serial1/0.

4
[Picture 4]
Refer to the exhibit. What information does this output provide?
The router has a connected default route.
The router is installing five routes in its routing table.
x The router received routing updates from 10.89.64.28.
The router is advertising its routes to the router with the address 10.89.94.31.

5
What statistical information is gathered using NetFlow?
interface error statistics
x IP traffic statistics
router CPU usage statistics
switch memory usage statistics

6
[Picture 6]
Refer to the exhibit. The RSPAN configuration for each switch is shown. The network administrator has configured RSPAN to allow the monitoring of traffic to a corporate server. Unfortunately, the administrator is unable to sniff any traffic from the link. Why is the administrator unable to sniff traffic?
Only VLAN 1 can be used as the RSPAN VLAN.
The session numbers on the two switches do not match.
The remote interface on SW1 should be identified as fa0/3.
The source and destination interfaces are reversed on SW2.
x VLAN 100 has not been properly configured as an RSPAN VLAN.

7
Which SNMP version offers enhanced security through encryption and authentication?
SNMP version 2
SNMP version 2c
x SNMP version 3
SNMP version 3c
SNMP version 5
SNMP version 9

8
[Picture 7]
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is testing connectivity to a remote application server. On the basis of the output that is exhibited, what conclusion can be made?
A problem exists with Layer 3 connectivity.
A connection can be established to all TCP ports on the server.
x The Open response on R1 indicates that the port (application) is active.
A Telnet connection to the HTTP port on a server is unsuccessful.

9
[Picture 3]
Refer to the exhibit. From the debug ip packet command output, which statement is correct?
All packets are the same length.
x All packets are being process switched.
All packets originated within the router.
All packets are forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/0.

10
Embedded Event Manager events can be triggered based on which three Cisco IOS subsystems? (Choose three.)
changes in the CEF table
changes in the routing table
x counter changes
execution of a Tcl script
x SNMP MIB object changes
x syslog messages

11
What does the command show ip interface brief | exclude unassigned display?
x all interfaces that have an IP address assigned
all interfaces that are assigned an access control list
the first instance of the unassigned keyword and all lines afterwards
only the first section of output that contains the unassigned keyword

12
What should be considered when using the debug command?
It may result in outdated output.
x It may render the system unusable.
It can be executed from user EXEC.
It needs to be used only when the network has heavy traffic.

13
[Picture 2]
Refer to the the exhibit. Given the partial NetFlow configuration, which command sequence is required to forward the traffic statistics of interfaces Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 to the NetFlow traffic collector?
R1(config)# interface FastEthernet1/0
R1(config-if)# ip flow egress
R1(config-if)# exit
R1(config)# interface FastEthernet1/0
R1(config-if)# ip flow ingress
R1(config-if)# exit
R1(config)# ip flow-control source Fa0/0
R1(config)# ip flow-control source Fa0/1
R1(config)# exit
R1(config)# ip flow-control source Fa1/0
R1(config)# exit
x R1(config)# interface FastEthernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip flow ingress
R1(config-if)# exit
R1(config)# interface FastEthernet0/1
R1(config-if)# ip flow ingress
R1(config-if)# exit

14
A router is currently running both OSPF and BGP. The administrator issues the command show ip route | exclude ^B. What routes will be displayed?
only OSPF routes
only BGP routes
both BGP and OSPF routes
x both OSPF and directly connected routes
both BGP and directly connected routes

15
What is the effect of the snmp-server ifindex persist command?
All SNMP messages will remain in memory until the next interface reset.
The SNMP community string index will be encrypted and stored in NVRAM.
The SNMP interfaces for all devices in the community will be synchronized in NVRAM.
x The SNMP interface index for each interface will stay the same, even if the device is rebooted.

16
By default, Cisco routers send which type of SNMP traps?
x SNMP version 1
SNMP version 2c
SNMP version 3
SNMP versions 1 and 2c
SNMP versions 1, 2c, and 3

17
What will occur when the no debug all command is issued?
Options for debugging will be displayed.
All debugging output will immediately stop.
x No further debugging information will be generated.
General debugging on the router will be disabled, but specific debugging will continue.

18
A newly established branch office is reporting connectivity issues with the server farm that is located at the head office. The network administrator suggests that the problem could be with the path MTU. How could the network administrator verify that this is the problem?
Escalate the problem to the ISP.
Consult the network documentation to determine the MTU.
Use the traceroute command to determine where packets are being lost.
Send different types of traffic to the destination address to determine which makes it through.
x Use the extended ping option to send packets of increasing size to the destination to determine the path MTU.

19
A network administrator has received complaints about slow network performance on one segment of a Layer 2 switched network. To determine what types of traffic are on the segment, the administrator decides to configure SPAN to allow the installation of a packet sniffer. Which two items must be configured to allow SPAN to function? (Choose two.)
x a monitored port or VLAN
the threshold value of monitored traffic
x the port that connects to the packet sniffer
the sampling rate of the monitored port or VLAN
the dot1q encapsulation on the monitored port

20
[Picture 1]
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the exhibited output, what could be the reason for the failure of the second ping to host 172.16.1.5?
The destination network became unreachable after two seconds.
The router cannot handle two consecutive extended ping commands.
Packets with the DF bit set cannot be transported over a Frame Relay network.
x An interface of the device along the path to the destination cannot accommodate the large packets.

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TSHOOT Chapter 2 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% - Take Assessment – TSHOOT Chapter 2 – CCNP TSHOOT: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

NOTE CHOOSE x FOR TRUE

1

What are two limitations of an ad hoc troubleshooting approach? (Choose two.)
x inefficient use of time and resources
only applicable to physical layer problems
x difficult to transfer the job to someone else
can only be used after a structured approach has failed
requires more technical knowledge than a structured approach

2
What are two facts regarding the information that is collected for baseline creation? (Choose two.)
The information is the same for all networks.
x It can be used for capacity planning.
It should be limited to only a few key performance statistics.
x It can be collected using tools such as NBAR, NetFlow, and SNMP.
It should be collected only once and then archived for future reference.

3
After a proposed solution has been implemented, the network administrator realizes that new problems have been introduced by the changes. What is the next step in the troubleshooting process?
Propose a hypothesis.
x Execute the rollback plan.
Determine an appropriate workaround.
Escalate the problem to another department.

4
A network engineer initially uses the ping command to help troubleshoot a connection problem. Which troubleshooting approach best describes this scenario?
bottom-up approach
x divide-and-conquer approach
follow-the-path approach
move-the-problem approach
spot-the-difference approach
top-down approach

5
What is a situation where escalation of an issue is inadvisable?
Management has not been consulted.
x Escalation will slow the procedure.
The problem is actually a set of problems.
The problem has an impact on the performance of the entire network.
Solving the problem would showcase the skills and knowledge of the troubleshooter.

6
To correct an issue that was discovered a few days earlier, an administrator makes a change during a regularly scheduled maintenance window. After making the change, the administrator discovers that a new problem has occurred. What should the administrator do next?
x Rollback the change and resume the troubleshooting process.
Continue making changes until the symptoms disappear.
Leave the change in place and troubleshoot the new problems at a later time.
Gather information about the new problem and form a new hypothesis.

7
Which three types of data are useful for creating a baseline? (Choose three.)
number of infrastructure routers and switches
x Remote Monitoring (RMON), Network Based Application Recognition (NBAR), and NetFlow statistics
DHCP and NAT translation statistics
x network performance characteristics
switch interface statistics of all access ports
x basic performance statistics like the interface load for critical network links and the CPU load and memory usage of routers and switches

8
After a network change that occurred during a scheduled maintenance window, users were complaining about not being able to access a local file server. Upon investigation, the administrator determined that the problem was with the recently entered routing configurations. Because of company policy, the administrator is not allowed to correct the routing configuration outside of a scheduled maintenance window. Instead, the administrator moved the file server to an accessible subnet. Which statement describes what the administrator did?
The administrator determined a solution to the problem.
x The administrator determined a workaround for the problem.
The administrator applied the “move the problem” troubleshooting approach.
The administrator applied the “spot the difference” troubleshooting approach.

9
Which three IOS features can be used to keep the network documentation accurate? (Choose three.)
x rollback feature
policy compliance
x configuration archive
performance monitoring
basic performance statistics
x Embedded Event Manager

10
A network administrator executes the show processes cpu command on a production router and notices that the average CPU load over the past 5 seconds was 97% and over the last one minute was around 39%. What should the administrator do next?
Nothing. This is normal behavior for an ISR router.
Contact the service provider because the contract is not being fulfilled as specified in the SLA.
x Compare the result to the baseline for an accurate assessment.
Replace the router as soon as possible because it has reached capacity.

11
Which two procedures can be implemented to ensure that current backups of all device configurations are maintained? (Choose two.)
x Log all configuration change events to a syslog server.
Password protect all devices to prevent configuration changes.
x Implement a system to create automatic configuration backups.
Update configuration backups only after major network outages.
Create configuration backups as soon as an issue is reported with network performance.

12
A user creates a trouble ticket indicating that the Internet is inaccessible. The network administrator receives the ticket and determines that this user is the only one having problems. A ping command issued from the administrative PC to the user PC is successful. What should the administrator do next?
x Escalate the issue to the desktop support group.
Contact the ISP to determine if there is an issue on the ISP side.
View the route table on the core router to determine if there is a routing issue.
Swap out the patch cable between the user PC and the switch to determine if that solves the problem.

13
What is a symptom of an incorrectly applied network command when issued under the routing process?
a down status on an interface
x a timeout message when attempting to ping a device on another network
a routing protocol that is not running
a user who is unable to connect to machines that are located on the same subnet

14
Which two components are normally considered part of change control? (Choose two.)
the cost of network changes
x the time when changes can be made
the technology that is used to implement changes
x the authorization that is required to make changes
the staff changes that are required to carry out repairs

15
In which phase of the structured troubleshooting process should a network administrator clearly communicate to the affected network users what is going to be done and why it is being done?
the analysis of information
the definition of the problem
the elimination of possibilities
the gathering of facts
x the proposal and testing of a hypothesis

16
What is a benefit of change control during the processes of regular network maintenance?
simplification of the process for creating a network baseline
x reduction in the frequency and duration of unplanned outages
elimination of the need to troubleshoot planned outages
elimination of the need to perform a regular network backup

17
In which structured troubleshooting process phase would a network engineer ask questions such as “When did it last work?” or “Has it ever worked?”
analyze information phase
x define the problem phase
eliminate possibilities phase
gather facts phase
propose a hypothesis phase
solve the problem phase

18
What is an important element of troubleshooting, regardless of the method used?
using a single troubleshooting process
executing the steps in the same order every time
x following a structured and systematic process
spending a significant amount of time analyzing the information

19
The help desk receives several calls on Monday morning stating that users cannot connect to a local print server that was working on Friday. Which statement about the problem would be correct?
x The inability to connect to the print server is a symptom of a problem.
The inability to connect to the print server is the problem.
The connectivity problem occurred Monday morning.
The inability to connect to the print server caused the problem.

20
What type of information can be gathered by using SNMP during the process of collecting baseline information?
basic performance statistics via the use of show commands
basic performance statistics for Layer 2 and Layer 3 protocols
x basic performance statistics about the interface load for critical network links
basic performance statistics to profile different types of traffic on the network

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TSHOOT Chapter 1 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – TSHOOT Chapter 1 – CCNP TSHOOT: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

NOTE CHOOSE X FOR TRUE

1

What are two motivations for measuring network performance? (Choose two.)
capacity planning
controlling traffic flow
diagnosing performance problems
increasing network security
monitoring user activity
troubleshooting logging activity

2
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with creating a backup of the startup configuration for router R1 to a server with IP address 10.1.15.1. Which option will provide the most secure way to transfer the file?
R1# copy startup-config ftp://10.1.15.1/R1-test.cfg
R1# copy startup-config ftp://RED:san-fran@10.1.15.1/R1-test.cfg
R1# copy startup-config http://10.1.15.1/R1-test.cfg
R1# copy startup-config https://10.1.15.1/R1-test.cfg

3
An administrator needs to ensure a server is created to store all network device backups. Which service should be enabled on the server to allow it to receive backups?
Telnet
CCP
NTP
FTP

4
Which Cisco web-based resource provides a complete bill-of-materials based on selected hardware and software configurations?
Cisco Power Calculator
Cisco Feature Navigator
Embedded Event Manager
x Dynamic Configuration Tool
CiscoWorks Resource Manager Essentials

5
What are two ways to simplify access to network maintenance documentation? (Choose two.)
a wiki
an issue tracking system
SNMP Object Navigator
Cisco Feature Navigator
Cisco Dynamic Configuration Tool

6
Which two statements are true about NTP servers in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
There can only be one NTP server on an enterprise network.
All NTP servers synchronize directly to a stratum 1 time source.
NTP servers at stratum 1 are directly connected to an authoritative time source.
NTP servers ensure an accurate time stamp on logging and debugging information.
NTP servers control the mean time between failures (MTBF) for key network devices.

7
What are two benefits of scheduling maintenance as part of the network maintenance planning effort? (Choose two.)
x reduced network downtime
more promotion of the use of a common calendar
less need for network monitoring
x predictable lead time for change requests
immediate solutions to noncritical issues
easier for budget planning purposes

8
Which two network maintenance tasks should be performed as part of a network maintenance plan? (Choose two.)
network monitoring
IP address administration
service-level agreement compliance
command line device management
accommodating adds, moves, and changes

9
A network technician receives a report from a user about a connectivity issue to a branch office resource. The details of the issue are documented and assigned a priority. Another team member reviews the issue and researches how similar issues were resolved in the past. The issue is escalated to another team for resolution. What type of maintenance tool matches the process described?
Management Information Base (MIB)
Dynamic Configuration Tool
x issue tracking system
syslog server logging system

10
What must be considered when creating configuration backups to be used during disaster recovery?
a clear versioning and naming system
service contract information
exact hardware serial numbers
location of single points of failure

11
When should high-impact network changes be made on a production network?
immediately
during regular business hours
during peak network traffic times
during scheduled maintenance windows

12
Why is it important to have a disaster recovery plan for a network?
to reduce network costs
x to reduce downtime when a device fails
to increase network capacity during peak times
to increase network throughput during peak times

13
Which two network procedures should all network maintenance plans include? (Choose two).
replacing failed devices
determining business hours
accommodating adds, moves, and changes
establishing a list of non-essential applications
responding to all external queries

14
Which two actions are considered part of network monitoring and performance measurement? (Choose two.)
measurement of network delay, jitter, or packet loss
monitoring of interface status, interface load, CPU load, and memory usage
monitoring the procedures used to install software, configurations, and licenses
monitoring the performance of the tools required to transfer the software and configuration to the device
ensuring the availability of documentation of the exact hardware part, serial, and service contract numbers for the devices

15
What are two benefits to a scheduled maintenance? (Choose two.)
x reduces network downtime
allows failed devices to be corrected immediately
allows the engineers to make the corrections during peak utilization times
x ensures software patches and backups are completed

16
Which network performance statistics should be measured in order to verify SLA compliance?
NAT translation statistics
device CPU and memory utilization
x packet round-trip time (RTT), jitter, and packet loss
number of error messages that are logged on the syslog server

17
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information presented, why would a syslog server not receive debugging information?
Debugging information cannot be sent to a syslog server.
The logging trap 7 global configuration command still needs to be issued.
The logging buffer is too small to store debugging information and must be increased.
The logging console debugging global configuration command still needs to be issued.
The logging monitor debugging global configuration command still needs to be issued.

18
Successful disaster recovery is dependent on the existence of which two items? (Choose two.)
network management personnel on-site 24/7
up-to-date server patches
x software provisioning tools
x up-to-date hardware inventory
well-defined trust boundaries

19
An administrator has a written procedure of the steps to follow if a device fails. Which two items should the administrator have in order to reduce the amount of downtime the failed device could cause? (Choose two.)
x existing IOS
SNMP logs
Cisco Feature Navigator
x copy of current configuration

20
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with creating a configuration archive for the configuration of R1. What would be the outcome of the displayed configuration?
The current running configuration file will be archived after 10080 minutes on the remote server.
The current running configuration file will be archived every 10080 minutes in the local flash memory.
The current running configuration file will be archived any time running configuration is copied to NVRAM.
The current running configuration file will be archived every 10080 minutes in the local flash memory and remote location.

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SWITCH Chapter 7 CCNP 6.0 2012 100%- Take Assessment – SWITCH Chapter 7 – CCNP SWITCH: Implementing IP Cisco Switching (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. Which three statements are true about Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) implementation on Cisco routers? (Choose three.)

Bidir-PIM is suited for multicast with larger numbers of sources.
In PIM-SM deployment, all routers create only (*,G) entries for the multicast groups.
In PIM-DM, a multicast sender first registers with the RP, and the data stream begins to flow from sender to RP to receiver.
Available network bandwidth is overutilized outside of the multicast routing zone because multiple streams of data are required between distant routers in place of a single transmission.
All routers in the PIM network learn about the active group-to-RP mapping from the RP mapping agent by automatically joining the Cisco-RP-discovery (224.0.1.40) multicast group.
In a PIM-SM network, the routers have the SPT threshold set to 0 by default which guarantees that the last-hop router switches to SPT mode as soon as the host starts receiving the multicast.

2. What method of QoS gives preferential handling for predefined classes of traffic?
best-effort services
differentiated services
hard QoS services
integrated services

3. What are two reasons to implement wireless in a network? (Choose two.)
increased security
increased mobility
increased productivity
increased cost savings
increased throughput

4. Which configuration-related step is required for IGMP snooping on a Catalyst switch?
Enable IGMP snooping in global configuration mode.
Configure the IGMP snooping method.
Enable multicast routing in global configuration mode.
None – IGMP snooping is enabled globally by default.

5.
Refer to the exhibit. The network has EIGRP configured on all routers and has converged on the routes advertised. PIM sparse mode has been also configured on all routers. The routers between the Source and the rendezvous point (RP) have (S,G) state in the multicast routing table and the routers between the RP and the Receivers have (*,G) state in their multicast routing tables. After the first multicast packet is received by the Receivers and the switchover takes place, how will the multicast traffic continue to flow from the Source to the Receivers?
The traffic will flow via source tree from the Source to the Receivers.
The traffic will flow via shared tree from the Source to the RP and via shared tree from the RP to the Receivers.
The traffic will flow via shared tree from the Source to the RP and via source tree from the RP to the Receivers.
The traffic will flow via source tree from the Source to the RP and via shared tree from the RP to the Receivers.

6. What is the result of the global configuration command ip pim send-rp-discovery Loopback0 scope 3?
The router sends broadcast group-to-RP mapping messages so that other routers can automatically discover the RP.
The routers sends group-to-RP mapping messages to 224.0.1.39 so that other routers can automatically discover the RP.
The router sends group-to-RP mapping messages to 224.0.1.40 so that other routers can automatically discover the RP.
The router advertises itself as the RP by sending messages to the 224.0.1.39 address.

7. Where should QoS classification and marking be done?
access layer
at the first router interface
core layer
distribution layer

8. For configuring IP multicast routing, what is the purpose of the global configuration mode command ip pim send-rp-announce 10.1.1.1?
enables IP multicast routing with router ID 10.1.1.1
assigns the role of rendezvous point mapping agent to the router with IP address 10.1.1.1
announces the candidacy of the router with IP address 10.1.1.1 as the rendezvous point for all multicast groups
enables protocol independent multicast (PIM) with router ID 10.1.1.1

9. What are two reasons to implement voice in a network? (Choose two.)
cost savings
increased productivity
stronger security
increased data throughput
easier administration

10.
Refer to the exhibit. Router R6 has sent a join message to router R4 requesting multicast traffic for users in the multicast group 224.1.1.1. How will the multicast traffic that is sent from the multicast server SRC through the R1-R3-R5 path be handled at router R6?
The multicast traffic will be dropped.
The multicast traffic will be sent to switch SW1, which will drop the traffic.
The multicast traffic will be forwarded to all users in the multicast group 224.1.1.1.
The multicast traffic will be sent back to the rendezvous point (RP) through the R4-R2-R1 path.

11. Which MAC multicast address correctly maps to the IP multicast address 224.10.50.4?
01.00.5E.10.32.04
01.00.5E.10.50.04
01.00.5E.0A.32.04
01.00.5E.0A.50.04

12. Which two statements about Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) are true? (Choose two.)
PIM does not require an IGP protocol to be configured in the network.
PIM should be configured only on the first and the last hop routers in the multicast tree.
PIM should be configured on the device that hosts the source of the muticast traffic.
PIM Sparse Mode is most useful when there are few senders, many receivers, and the volume of multicast traffic is high.
PIM is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of the unicast IP routing protocol that is running in the network.
Three of the forwarding modes for PIM are PIM Dense Mode (PIM-DM), PIM Sparse Mode (PIM-SM), and PIM Sparse-Dense Mode.

13. Which two statements about IP multicast addresses are true? (Choose two.)
IP address 224.0.0.5 identifies the all-routers group.
All IP multicast group addresses fall in the range from 224.0.0.0 through 254.255.255.255.
GLOP addresses and limited scope addresses are two types of IP multicast addresses.
IP addresses between 233.0.0.0 and 233.255.255.255 are reserved link-local addresses.
IP addresses between 224.0.0.1 and 239.255.255.255 can be assigned to the sources of multicast traffic.
IP address 224.0.1.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP).

14. Which statement is true about the split MAC architecture?
It distributes the processing of 802.11 data and management protocols between a lightweight access point and a centralized WLAN controller.
Multiple devices can be grouped together to combine total bandwidth.
The conversation flow can be split between multiple switches.
The conversation flow can be split between multiple routers.

15. What is the function of a gateway within a VoIP network?
provides translation between VoIP and non-VoIP networks
provides connection admission control (CAC), bandwidth control and management, and address translation
provides real-time connectivity for participants in multiple locations to attend the same video conference or meeting
provides call control for IP phones, CAC, bandwidth control and management, and address translation

16. What is a major difference between traffic shaping and policing?
Traffic shaping buffers excessive traffic to smooth traffic whereas policing drops excessive traffic.
Traffic shaping is preferred for traffic flows such as voice and video whereas policing is better for TCP flows.
Traffic shaping controls the rate traffic flows through a switch whereas policing controls traffic flows through a router.
Traffic shaping marks traffic with Layer 2 class of service (CoS) whereas policing marks traffic with the ToS bits in the IP header.

17. The bootstrap router (BSR) mechanism of automating the distribution of rendezvous point (RP) information uses which IP address to disseminate information to all protocol independent multicast (PIM) routers?
224.0.0.13
224.0.1.13
224.1.0.13
224.1.1.13

18. What is the IP address for the Cisco-RP-announce multicast group?
224.0.1.1
224.0.1.39
224.0.1.40
224.0.0.40

19. What are two best practices when implementing voice in a network? (Choose two.)
Create a separate VLAN for voice traffic.
Utilize Power over Ethernet.
Minimize the volume of the data traffic.
Remove all QoS policies that are applied in the network.
Implement access control lists at the distribution layer.

20. What is true about the differences between wireless LANs (WLANs) and LANs?
A VPN connection that uses IPsec is not possible with WLANs.
WLANs do not use MAC addresses.
WLANs use CSMA/CA rather than CSMA/CD because WLANs operate at half-duplex.
WLANs use CSMA/CA rather than CSMA/CD because WLANs cannot detect collisions.
WLANs use CSMA/CD rather than CSMA/CA because wireless LANs operate on multiple frequencies.
WLANs use CSMA/CD rather than CSMA/CA because WLANs operate at full-duplex.

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