EWAN Final Exam CCNA 4 4.0 2012 100% - Take Assessment – EWAN Final Exam – CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012 Update July 2012 95%

1. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
checksum
digital certificates
encapsulation
encryption
hashing

2. Which network component has the primary function of detecting and logging attacks made against the network?
Cisco Security Agent
antivirus software scanner
intrusion detection system
intrusion prevention system

3.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?
The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng network command is not configured.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.

4. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)
Once a good password is created, do not change it.
Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.
Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.
Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.
Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.
Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.

5.
Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?
The clock rate must be 56000.
The usernames are misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.

6.
Refer to the exhibit. Headquarters is connected through the Internet to branch office A and branch office B. Which WAN technology would be best suited to provide secure connectivity between headquarters and both branch offices?
ATM
VPN
ISDN
Frame Relay
broadband DSL

7. Which combination of authentication and Layer 2 protocol should be used to establish a link between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router without sending authentication information in plain text?
CHAP and HDLC
CHAP and PPP
PAP and HDLC
PAP and PPP

8. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports?
Company 2 downloads larger files than company 1 downloads.
Company 2 must share the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares.
Company 1 is closer to the service provider than is company 2.
Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has.

9.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the Internet. The access list must still permit the 192.168.1.0/24 network access to the 192.168.2.0 network. On which router interface and in which direction should the access control list be applied?
interface Fa0/0, inbound
interface Fa0/0, outbound
interface S0/0/0, inbound
interface S0/0/0, outbound

10. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

11.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?
Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
Check that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

12.
Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?
Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet .

13. What component of VPN technology combines message text with a key to make the message unreadable by unauthorized receivers?
message hash
user password
RSA signature
encryption algorithm

14. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?
protocol type
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address

15.
Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?
The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
The existing ACL is modified to include the new command.
A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command.

16.
Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 have not received any RIP routing updates. What will fix the issue?
Enable RIP authentication on R2.
Issue the ip directed-broadcast command on R2.
Change the subnet masks to 10.11.12.0/8 and 172.16.40.0/16 on R2.
Enable CDP on R2 so that the other routers will receive routing updates.

17. What name is given to the location where a customer network interfaces with a network that is owned by another organization?
CPE
DCE
local loop
demarcation point

18.
Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the Orlando router to the DC router?
DLCI 123
DLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the DC router

19.
Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset
unplugged cable
improper LMI type
PPP negotiation failure

20. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 10.10.4.1 10.10.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 10.10.4.1 and 10.10.4.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 10.10.4.1 and 10.10.4.5.
The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 10.10.4.1 to 10.10.4.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 10.10.4.1 and 10.10.4.5.

21. What functionality do access control lists provide when implementing dynamic NAT on a Cisco router?
which addresses are allowed to be accessed from the inside network
which addresses are allowed out of the router
which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
which addresses are to be translated

22. Which statement about a VPN is true?
VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.
DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.
VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.
Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.

23.
Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?
There is a Layer 2 loop.
The VTP domain names do not match.
Only one switch can be in server mode.
S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

24. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can also successfully ping using the mail server name. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
physical layer
network layer
data link layer
application layer

25. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?
ATM
Frame Relay
HDLC
PPP
SDLC

26. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

27. Which statement accurately describes a role that is played in establishing a WAN connection?
ISDN and ATM are circuit-switched technologies that are used to establish on demand a path through the service provider network.
Data link layer protocols like PPP and HDLC define how data is encapsulated for transmission across a WAN link.
A packet-switching network establishes a dedicated circuit between nodes for the duration of the communication session.
Frame Relay switches are normally considered to be customer premises equipment (CPE) and are maintained by local administrators.

28.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynamic in the output of the command?
The bandwidth capability of the interface increases and decreases automatically based on BECNs.
The Serial0/0/1 interface acquired 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server.
The mapping between DLCI 100 and 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP.
DLCI 100 will automatically adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud.

29. What is an accurate description of CHAP when used with PPP on a serial connection between two routers?
A username and password are sent to the peer router, which replies with an accept or reject message.
A username and password are sent to the peer router. If these match the configuration in the peer, the peer in turn provides a username and password to the initiating router.
A challenge message is sent to the peer router, which responds with its username and a calculated value based on a shared secret. This value is then compared by the challenger to its own calculations.
An encrypted password is sent to the peer router, which decrypts it and compares it to a shared secret. If the decrypted passwords match, the peer sends the encrypted password back to the initiating router.

30. Which technology is used to dynamically map next hop, network layer addresses to virtual circuits in a Frame Relay network?
Inverse ARP
LMI
DLCI

31.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to connect R1 remotely to make configuration changes. Based on the exhibited command output, what will be the result when attempting to connect to R1?
failure to connect due to Telnet not being enabled
failure to connect due to incomplete configuration for Telnet
a successful connection and ability to make configuration changes
a successful connection but inability to make configuration changes because of the absence of an enable secret password

32. A DHCP server is configured with a block of excluded addresses. What two devices would be assigned static addresses from the excluded address range? (Choose two.)
a protocol analyzer
DNS server for the network
network printer that is used by many different users
a laptop that will get a different address each time it boots up

33.
Refer to the exhibit. The corporate network that is shown has been assigned network 172.16.128.0/19 for use at branch office LANs. If VLSM is used, what mask should be used for addressing hosts at Branch4 with minimal waste from unused addresses?
/19
/20
/21
/22
/23
/24

34. Compared with IDS systems, what can IPS systems do to provide further protection of computer systems?
detect potential attacks
stop the detected attack from executing
update OS patches for computer systems
scan computer systems for viruses and spyware

35. A company has its headquarters office in Dallas and five branch offices located in New York, Chicago, Los Angeles, Seattle, and Atlanta. WAN links are used for communications among offices in six sites. In planning the WAN links, the network designer is given two requirements: (1) minimize cost and (2) provide a certain level of WAN link reliability with redundant links. Which topology should the network designer recommend?
star
full mesh
hierarchical
partial mesh

36.
Refer to the exhibit. Every time the administrator reboots this router, the boot process ends in setup mode. What is a possible problem?
There is insufficient RAM for the IOS to load on this router.
A password recovery process should be done on this router.
The bootstrap version and the version of the IOS are different.
The IOS image is damaged and must be reloaded using tftpdnld.
The configuration register is set to ignore the startup configuration.

37. An administrator issues the command show interfaces s0/1/0 on a router that is configured for Frame Relay. Which console output may indicate an LMI mismatch?
Serial0/1/0 is administratively down
Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is up
Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is down
Serial0/1/0 is down, line protocol is down

38.
Refer to the exhibit. Users who are connected to R1 report that they are unable to establish connectivity to the users who are connected to router R2. A network administrator tests the link with the debug ppp authentication command. Based on the output shown, which statement correctly defines the problem on the link?
R1 uses PAP as a method of authentication, and R2 uses CHAP.
R1 uses CHAP as a method of authentication, and R2 uses PAP.
R1 uses an incorrect user name or password for CHAP authentication.
R2 uses an incorrect user name or password for PAP authentication.

39. Which IP address and wildcard mask combination can be used in an ACL statement to match the 172.16.0.0/30 network?
172.16.0.0 0.0.0.1
172.16.0.0 0.0.0.3
172.16.0.0 0.0.0.7
172.16.0.0 255.255.255.252

40. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)
reduced jitter
reduced costs
reduced latency
the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth
the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

41.
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?
10.1.1.2:1234
172.30.20.1:1234
172.30.20.1:3333
192.168.1.2:80

42. What function does LCP perform in the establishment of a PPP session?
LCP brings the network layer protocols up and down.
It carries packets from several network layer protocols.
It encapsulates and negotiates options for IP and IPX.
It negotiates and sets up control options on the WAN data link.

43. An employee of XYZ corporation will begin working from home. The employee has a choice of DSL or cable technology for WAN connectivity. Which connectivity characteristic is accurately described?
Cable transfer rates are dependent on the length of the local loop.
DSL provides a high-speed connection over existing copper phone wires.
DSL download speeds are affected by high usage in the area.
DSL service shares the same frequency range as voice calls.
Cable connectivity usually requires new fiber installed for the local loop.

44. Which option represents a best practice for applying ACLs?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied inside the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces use fewer router resources.
Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

45. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows “up, line protocol up”. The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
network layer
data link layer
physical layer

46. Which two configurations must be completed before an RSA key can be generated on a router? (Choose two.)
a hostname
a domain name
the SSH version
the SSH timeouts
local authentication on the VTY lines

47. What type of ACL can be used to force a user to authenticate to the router before accessing a network?
standard
dynamic
reflexive
time-based

48. What is the result when the command security passwords min-length 8 is entered into a router?
All new passwords are required to be a minimum of 8 characters in length.
All current passwords are now required to be a minimum of 8 characters in length.
Enable passwords must be at least 8 characters but line passwords are unaffected.
Nothing will happen until the command service password-encryption is entered. Then all future passwords must have a minimum of 8 characters.

49. Because of a remote-procedure call failure, a user is unable to access an NFS server. At what layer of the TCP/IP model does this problem occur?
network layer
data link layer
physical layer
application layer

50. What is the result when the command permit tcp 10.25.132.0 0.0.0.255 any eq smtp is added to a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?
TCP traffic with a destination to the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted.
Only Telnet traffic is permitted to the 10.24.132.0/24 network
Ttraffic from 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to anywhere on using any port.
Traffic using port 25 from the 10.25.132.0/24 is permitted to all destinations.

—————

1.

Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset
unplugged cable
improper LMI type
PPP negotiation failure

2.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?
frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

3. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?
ATM
Frame Relay
HDLC
PPP
SDLC

4.

Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?
a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 ddress and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

5. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?
protocol type
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address

6.

Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?
The clock rate must be 56000.
The usernames are misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.

7. Which three statements accurately describe a security policy? (Choose three.)
It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It defines a process for managing security violations.
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
The remote access policy is a component of the security policy that governs acceptable use of e-mail systems.
It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumventing security measures.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.

8. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Headquarters is connected through the Internet to branch office A and branch office B. Which WAN technology would be best suited to provide secure connectivity between headquarters and both branch offices?
ATM
VPN
ISDN
Frame Relay
broadband DSL

10. Which statement about a VPN is true?
VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.
DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.
VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.
Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.

11. A company is deciding which WAN connection type it should implement between its main office and branch offices. The company wants to use a cost-effective service that provides virtual circuits between each office. The company also wants to be able to transmit variable-length packets on these circuits. Which solution best meets these requirements?
ATM
HDLC
ISDN
Frame Relay

12. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports?
Company 1 only uses microfilters at branch locations.
Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has.
Company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1 is.
Company 2 shares the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares with.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?
DLCI 123
DLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the Orlando router

14.

Refer to the exhibit. This router is being configured to use SDM, but the SDM interface of the router cannot be accessed. What is the cause of the problem?
The VTY lines are not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The username and password are not configured correctly.

15. Which two devices can be used by teleworkers who need to connect to the company network across the PSTN for a few hours a day? (Choose two.)
router
CSU/DSU
DSL modem
cable modem
access server
dialup modem

16. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

17. What is the function of an intrusion detection system on a network?
to restrict access to only authorized users
to detect attacks against a network and send logs to a management console
to prevents attack against the network and provide active defense mechanisms
to detect and prevent most viruses and many Trojan horse applications from spreading in the network

18.

Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?
The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.
STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.
Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.
S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

19. When Frame Relay encapsulation is used, what feature provides flow control and exchanges information about the status of virtual circuits?
LCP
LMI
DLCI
Inverse ARP

20. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure DHCP and static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
Configure dynamic NAT with overload.

21. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.)
reduced jitter
reduced costs
reduced latency
the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth
the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

22. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

23. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows “DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.3.17″. What is the problem?
The address 192.168.3.17 address is already in use by Fa0/0.
The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is configured incorrectly.
The ip helper-address command should be used on the Fa0/0 interface.
The 192.168.3.17 address has not been excluded from the 192Network pool.

24.

Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?
application
transport
network
data link
physical

25. What three questions can be answered using data gathered from a baseline on a new network? (Choose three.)
Are areas of the network experiencing high error rates?
Will the disaster recovery procedures work correctly?
What parts of the network have the highest volume?
Does the organization require more network technicians?
How does the network perform during peak periods?
Are there any devices working at top capacity?
What networks are the most susceptible to security attacks?

26. Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination?
extended
reflexive
standard
time-based

27.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to Web Server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from Web Server when received at R1?
10.1.1.2:80
10.1.1.2:1234
172.30.20.1:1234
172.30.20.1:3333

28. An administrator issues the command show interfaces s0/1/0 on a router that is configured for Frame Relay. Which console output may indicate an LMI mismatch?
Serial0/1/0 is administratively down
Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is up
Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is down
Serial0/1/0 is down, line protocol is down

29. A recently patched application server is experiencing response time problems. The network on which the application server is located has been experiencing occasional outages that the network team believes may be related to recent routing changes. Network and application teams have been notified to work on their respective issues. Which statement applies to this situation?
Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.
Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.
It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.

30.

Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.

31.

Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN will carry untagged traffic on FastEthernet 0/1?
VLAN 1
VLAN 2
VLAN 11
VLAN 12
VLAN 30
VLAN 999

32. What is an accurate description of CHAP when used with PPP on a serial connection between two routers?
A username and password are sent to the peer router, which replies with an accept or reject message.
A username and password are sent to the peer router. If these match the configuration in the peer, the peer in turn provides a username and password to the initiating router.
A challenge message is sent to the peer router, which responds with its username and a calculated value based on a shared secret. This value is then compared by the challenger to its own calculations.
An encrypted password is sent to the peer router, which decrypts it and compares it to a shared secret. If the decrypted passwords match, the peer sends the encrypted password back to the initiating router.

33. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?
local loop
DTE cable on router
demarcation point
demilitarized zone

34.

Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?
The commands are added to the end of the existing ACL.
The existing Managers ACL will be overwritten by the new ACL.
The router will output an error message and no changes will be made.
A duplicate Managers ACL will be created that will contain only the new commands.

35. Which statement is true about PAP in the authentication of a PPP session?
PAP uses a two-way handshake.
The password is unique and random.
PAP conducts periodic password challenges.
PAP uses MD5 hashing to keep the password secure.

36. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?
PPP with PAP
PPP with CHAP
HDLC with PAP
HDLC with CHAP

37. Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?
BE
DE
CIR
CBIR

38. Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?
Wi-Fi
WiMAX
satellite
Metro Ethernet

39.

Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured as a routing protocol on the network. Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 network should have full access to the web server that is connected to 192.168.3.0/24 but should not be allowed to telnet to router R3. Verifying the configuration, the network administrator realizes that users on network 192.168.1.0/24 can successfully telnet to the router. What should be done to remedy the problem?
The ACL 101 statements 10 and 20 should be reversed.
The ACL 101 should be applied on R3 VTY lines 0 4 in the inbound direction.
The ACL 101 should be applied on R3 VTY lines 0 4 in the outbound direction.
The ACL 101 should be applied on R3 Serial0/0/1 interface in the outbound direction.
The ACL 101 statement 10 should be changed to: permit ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any

40. What does an access control list determine when used with NAT on a Cisco router?
addresses that are to be translated
addresses that are assigned to a NAT pool
addresses that are allowed out of the router
addresses that are accessible from the inside network

41. Which IP address and wildcard mask combination can be used in an ACL statement to match the 172.16.0.0/30 network?
172.16.0.0 0.0.0.1
172.16.0.0 0.0.0.3
172.16.0.0 0.0.0.7
172.16.0.0 255.255.255.252

42. Which security solution has the responsibility of monitoring suspicious processes that are running on a host and that might indicate infection of Trojan horse applications?
antivirus application
operating system patches
intrusion prevention system
Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance

43.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to connect R1 remotely to make configuration changes. Based on the exhibited command output, what will be the result when attempting to connect to R1?
failure to connect due to Telnet not being enabled
failure to connect due to incomplete configuration for Telnet
a successful connection and ability to make configuration changes
a successful connection but inability to make configuration changes because of the absence of an enable secret password

44.

Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?
There is a Layer 2 loop.
The VTP domain names do not match.
Only one switch can be in server mode.
S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

45. A technician has been asked to run the Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on a customer router. What will be the result of this process?
Traffic is only accepted from and forwarded to SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
All traffic that enters the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.
The router is tested for any potential security problems and all recommended security-related configuration changes will be automatically applied.

46.

Refer to the exhibit. Which data transmission technology is being represented?
TDM
PPP
HDLC
SLIP

47. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which two suggestions should the administrator provide? (Choose two.)
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied inside the core layer.
Place standard ACLs as close to the destination as possible.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces require fewer router resources.
Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

48

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command would result in the output in the exhibit?
ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 172.16.76.3
ip nat inside source static 10.1.200.254 192.168.0.10
ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 10.1.200.254
ip nat inside source static 172.16.76.3 192.168.0.10
ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 172.16.76.3
ip nat inside source static 192.168.0.10 10.1.200.254

49. What are three important reasons to establish a network baseline? (Choose three.)
to determine the time it takes for the network to self recover from a failure
to determine which areas in the network are underutilized or overutilized
to determine the performance of the network during the normal hours of operation
to determine what thresholds should be set for the devices that need to be monitored
to determine the areas in the network which should not be included in the monitoring process
to determine the number of users whose access to network resources should be restricted

50. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)
There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
One access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
The term “inbound” refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

51. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows “up, line protocol up”. The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
network layer
data link layer
physical layer

52.

Refer to the exhibit. Router RT is not receiving routing updates from router RTA. What is causing the problem?
The ip rip authentication key-chain command specifies exam rather than test.
The name of the keystring is not the name of the neighboring router.
The key chains are given the same name on both routers.
The passive-interface command was issued for RTA.

Read more ...

ROUTE Final Exam CCNP 6.0 2012 100% - Take Assessment – ROUTE Final Exam – CCNP ROUTE: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?
by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers
by comparing known routes to information received in updates
by exchanging hello packets with neighboring routers
by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers

2. The IPv6 autoconfiguration feature enables a PC to automatically connect to an IPv6 network. What type of IPv6 address allows a PC host to send a router solicitation message requesting a prefix for stateless autoconfiguration?
link local address
site local address
aggregatable global unicast address
loopback address
IPv4-compatible address
flow-label address

3. During an interview, the company IT manager mentions that the company has two critical communication links to its main supplier. These links require an uptime of 24/7. Which part of the PPDIOO process is most affected by this information?
implementation phase
design phase
routing protocol selection
prototype design plan

4.
Refer to the exhibit. The RIP routes must be injected into the OSPF domain. Which command will perform external route summarization?
RTA(config-router)# summary-address 172.20.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTB(config-router)# summary-address 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
RTB(config-router)# area 1 range 192.168.16.0 255.255.252.0
RTA(config-router)# area 1 range 172.20.0.0 255.255.0.0

5.
Refer to the exhibit.
access-list 111 permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
route-map net-10 permit 10
match ip address 111
set interface FastEthernet 0/1
Where would the system administrator apply the above configuration to establish policy-based routing that directs packets from the 10.0.0.0/8 network through the R2 router to the Internet?
RTA interface Fa 0/0
RTA interface Fa 0/1
RTB interface Fa 0/1
RTB interface Fa 1/0
R2 interface Fa 0/0
R2 interface Fa 0/1

6. How does OSPF exchange routing updates when the passive-interface command is applied?
OSPF forms neighbor adjacencies on that interface.
The OSPF interface enters an active state.
OSPF stops sending routing updates out that interface.
OSPF only receives routing updates on that interface.
OSPF neither sends nor receives routing updates through that interface.

7. Which functional component of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture is responsible for hosting internal servers?
enterprise campus
enterprise edge
service provider edge
building distribution

8.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured EIGRP authentication between routers R1 and R2. After the routing tables are reviewed, it is noted that neither router is receiving EIGRP updates. What is a possible cause for this failure?
The same key chain name must be used on each router.
The same number of key strings must be used on each router.
The key string should be used in interface mode instead of the key chain.
The same autonomous system numbers must be used in the interface configurations of each router.
The authentication configuration is correct, but the show ip eigrp neighbors command should be issued to troubleshoot the issue.

9.
Refer to the exhibit. A GRE tunnel must be configured between routers RTA and RTB. Assume that router RTB has been correctly configured. Which command would correctly configure router RTA to encrypt traffic that is destined for router RTB?
access-list 101 permit gre 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit gre host 172.16.1.1 host 172.16.3.1
access-list 101 permit ip 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip host 172.16.1.1 host 172.16.3.1
access-list 101 permit gre host 192.168.12.1 host 192.168.23.3
access-list 101 permit gre host 192.168.23.3 host 192.168.12.1

10. What does the log message %DUAL-3-SIA: Route 10.1.2.0/24 stuck in active state in IP-EIGRP 24 mean?
An EIGRP reply packet was not received from one or more neighbors within the timeframe of 180 seconds.
DUAL has detected a routing loop for the 10.1.2.0/24 network.
EIGRP neighbors on the 10.1.2.0/24 network are stuck in the DUAL active state.
EIGRP for AS 24 is not yet configured for DUAL.

11.
Refer to the exhibit. Which route redistribution statement is true?
No metric is set for OSPF routes redistributed into EIGRP.
OSPF is redistributed into EIGRP with a default metric of 1.
No seed metric is set for redistributed RIP routes into EIGRP.
RIP routes are redistributed into EIGRP with a seed metric of infinity.
Both RIP and OSPF will be redistributed into EIGRP with the same seed metric.

12. Which access technology would be the most insecure to use when interconnecting a branch site?
cable or DSL
Frame Relay
IPsec VPN
leased line
MPLS VPN
SSL

13.
Refer to the exhibit. The BGP sessions are established between all routers. RTC receives route updates for network 170.10.0.0 from autonomous system 300 with the weight attribute set to 3000. RTB learns about network 170.10.0.0 from autonomous system 200 with a weight of 2000. Which router will be used by RTA as a next hop to reach network 170.10.0.0?
RTC because of the highest weight
RTC because of the T1 link
RTC because of the longest AS_Path
RTB because of the lowest weight
RTB because of the slow 64-kb/s link
RTB because of the shortest AS_Path

14.
Refer to the exhibit. How is the OSPF default gateway entry determined for R2?
Default routes are automatically injected by OSPF into all advertisements.
A static default gateway route is defined in the configuration of R2.
The default-information originate command is applied on R1.
The ISP defines the gateway of last resort and automatically passes it to R1 and R2.
The ip default-gateway command is applied on R2.

15.
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF and OSPFv3 have been configured on routers R1 and R2. However, they can exchange routing updates for OSPF but not for OSPFv3. What additional step should be taken to remedy the problem?
Configure interface Fa0/1 on R2 with the ipv6 address 2001::/64 eui-64 command.
Configure interface Fa0/0 on R1 with ipv6 address FE80::2E0:F7FF:FE45:7403 command.
Remove the IPv4 addresses on both routers R1 and R2 in order for OSPFv3 to exchange routing updates.
Remove the global IPv6 address from Fa0/0 interface on R1 in order for OSPFv3 to use the link-local address to exchange routing updates.

16.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, which statement is true?
Access list 1 specifies that packets with a destination address of 192.168.1.0 will be policy-routed.
Access list 2 specifies that packets with a source address of 172.16.1.0 will be policy-routed.
Packets that match access list 1 will be sent to the next-hop address 172.17.1.2.
Packets that match access list 2 will be denied access.
Both match statements must be true for route map ISP1 to be true.

17. When would the network administrator use the ip bandwidth-percent eigrp as-number percent command?
when there is a low bandwidth connection
when the connection is on a shared medium
when the connection is serial instead of Ethernet
when the link is always busy

18. Which two EIGRP and MPLS implementation statements are true? (Choose two.)
Two EIGRP routers must be on the same IP subnet when connecting over a Layer 2 MPLS VPN backbone.
Two EIGRP routers must be on the same IP subnet when connecting over a Layer 3 MPLS VPN backbone.
Two EIGRP routers must be on different IP subnets when connecting over a Layer 2 MPLS VPN backbone.
Two EIGRP routers must be on different IP subnets when connecting over a Layer 3 MPLS VPN backbone.

19.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a recent OSPF stub configuration between R3 and R4. The only routes that should appear on the routing table for R4 are intra-area routes and the default route. However, interarea routes are also appearing. What must the administrator do to fix this problem?
Issue the keyword stub on R3.
Issue the keyword no-summary on R3.
Issue the keyword nssa on R3.
Issue the keyword stub on R4.
Issue the keyword no-summary on R4.
Issue the keyword nssa on R4.

20. A network administrator must interconnect a small office/home office (SOHO) in a modern metropolitan city. Which two access technologies would be the most cost effective solutions to implement? (Choose two.)
cable
DSL
Frame Relay
leased lines
MPLS

21. Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
security policies
Power over Ethernet
switch port security
quality of service
Layer 3 functionality
end user access to network

22. On an OSPF multiaccess network, which multicast address must a non-DR router use to send an LSU packet that contains new link-state information?
224.0.0.1
224.0.0.2
224.0.0.5
224.0.0.6
224.0.0.9

23. What is the best solution for the split-horizon problem in a Frame Relay network?
disabling split horizon
using IGRP
using point-to-point subinterfaces
using floating static routes

24.
Refer to the exhibit. Which tunnel type should be configured on router R2 in order to establish connectivity between the two IPv6 islands?
automatic 6to4 tunnel
automatic ISATAP tunnel
manually configured GRE tunnel
manually configured IPv6 over IPv4

25.
Refer to the exhibit. A two-way redistribution is configured on router R2 between the EIGRP and the OSPF domains. The show ip route command output taken on R3 reveals that the network 10.10.10.16/28 is not installed in the routing table. What could the problem be?
A metric-type command is missing from the redistribution statement under OSPF routing process on R2.
A subnets command keyword is missing from the redistribution statement under the OSPF routing process on R2.
A summary-address command should be given under the OSPF routing process.
A no auto-summary command should be used under the EIGRP configuration on R2.
An area-range command should be used under the OSPF routing process.

26.
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which two router commands should be used to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two.)
ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
serial interface on router A
serial interface on router B

27.
Refer to the exhibit. Assume router R2 does not have BGP enabled. However, the neighbor remote-as router configuration command has been entered on routers R1 and R3. Based on the information that is presented, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
R1 will establish a peer relationship with R2 because they belong to the same BGP autonomous system.
R1 will establish a peer relationship with R3 because they have an IBGP session established.
R1 will establish a peer relationship with R2 although they do not have an IBGP session established.
R1 will establish a peer relationship with R3 although they are not directly connected.
R1 will establish a peer relationship with R2 because they are directly connected.

28. Which two statements are true of policy-based routing (PBR) as a path control tool? (Choose two.)
It is applied only in the inbound direction.
It can be applied only to link-state routing protocols.
Packets that do not match any match statements will be dropped.
It provides a mechanism to mark packets with different types of service (ToS).
Configured route map entries will have default sequence number increments of 5.

29. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way does EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to adestination network and the successor route fails?
It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
It sends queries to adjacent neighbors to find a new successor route.
It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
It sets the metric for the failed route to zero.

30.
Refer to the exhibit. The route map LOAD_BALANCE has been applied to the FastEthernet interfaces of R1, and all interfaces are up. R1 uses two default static routes to reach the Internet via ISP1 and ISP2. Which traffic will be sent to the null 0 interface by the route map on R1?
any packets that are sourced from the Internet
packets that are not sourced from the 10.2.0.0 network
packets that are not sourced from the ISP1 or ISP2 routers
packets that are sourced from the 10.2.0.0 network and destined for the Internet
packets that are sourced from 10.0.0.0 or 10.1.0.0 networks and destined for 10.2.0.0

31. Which two statements are correct about redistribution? (Choose two.)
The default-metric router configuration command takes precedence over the metricmetric-value option in the redistribute command.
The redistribute command is issued under the routing process that will send the redistributed routes.
When redistribution is occurring into OSPF, the optional subnets keyword specifies that subnetted routes should also be redistributed.
When redistributing into EIGRP, there are five parameters that encompass the metric value, although only four parameters are used to determine the metric.
Because of safeguards such as administrative distance, routing loops that are caused by redistribution are not possible.

32. What are two effective ways to prevent the EIGRP stuck-in-active problem? (Choose two.)
Modify keepalive timers on point-to-point connections.
Manually summarize routes wherever possible.
Configure core routers with SIA-Guard.
Configure distribution routers with SIA-Guard.
Set K-values to their default.
Maintain a hierarchical network design.

33. What are two significant benefits that are provided by IPsec? (Choose two.)
authentication
encryption
automatic creation of a public network
automatic creation of a private network
encapsulation

34.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is troubleshooting an adjacency problem between two OSPF routers. From the debug output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?
The routers are using mismatched authentication passwords.
Router1 is using only simple password authentication.
The routers are using different MD5 key numbers.
The key types are mismatched on the routers.
The authentication methods do not match.

35.
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of features corresponds accurately to the Cisco Hierarchical Network Model as represented by the diagram?
1. distribution – high speed switching
2. core – policy-based connectivity
3. access – local and remote workgroup

1. access – policy-based connectivity
2. distribution – high speed switching
3. core – local and remote workgroup

1. core – high speed switching
2. distribution – policy-based connectivity
3. access – local and remote workgroup

1. core – policy-based connectivity
2. distribution – high speed switching
3. access – local and remote workgroup

1. access – policy-based connectivity
2. core – local and remote workgroup
3. distribution – high speed switching

1. distribution – high speed switching
2. access – local and remote workgroup
3. core – policy-based connectivity

36. What is typically deployed to support high-speed transmissions of data to SOHO cable modems?
1000BASE-TX
DSL technology
fiber to the premises (FTTP)
high speed dialup cable modems
hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC)

37.
Refer to the exhibit. RTA cannot establish an EBGP session with RTC in autonomous system 100. Which configuration command will fix the problem?
The neighbor 3.3.3.1 remote-as 100 command should be applied on RTA.
The neighbor 1.1.1.2 remote-as 100 command should be applied on RTB.
The neighbor 3.3.3.1 ebgp-multihop command should be applied on RTA.
The neighbor 1.1.1.2 ebgp-multihop command should be applied on RTA.
The neighbor 1.1.1.2 ebgp-multihop command should be applied on RTB.

38. Which three critical functions are provided by VPNs? (Choose three.)
confidentiality of information
integrity of data
authorization of users
authentication of users
WAN management
quality of connection

39.
Refer to the exhibit. Which OSPFv3 configuration statement is true?
The router ospf cost command should be issued under router configuration mode.
The ipv6 ospf 100 area 1 interface configuration command must be entered on interface Fa0/1 of routers R1 and R2.
The router-id command must be entered under each FastEthernet interface of routers R1 and R2.
The router-id command must be entered using an IPv6 address.

40. What is a characteristic of an IBGP session type?
Neighbors may be located anywhere within multiple autonomous systems, even several hops away from each other.
A session typically occurs between routers in different autonomous systems with multiple ISPs.
It can be established between routers in the same AS even if they are not link partners.
It occurs between routers in two different autonomous systems.

41.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands need to be used on R1 and R2 to create a virtual link to and from area 0? (Choose two.)
R2(config-router)# area 0 virtual-link 1.1.1.1
R1(config-router)# area 0 virtual-link 2.2.2.2
R2(config-router)# area 5 virtual-link 1.1.1.1
R1(config-router)# area 5 virtual-link 2.2.2.2
R2(config-router)# area 7 virtual-link 1.1.1.1
R1(config-router)# area 7 virtual-link 2.2.2.2

42.
Refer to the exhibit. RTA, RTB, and RTC are connected through Frame Relay. RTA advertises network 180.80.0.0 to RTC with a next hop of 170.70.20.3. When RTC attempts to reach network 180.80.0.0, the routing fails. What should be configured under the BGP routing process to remedy the problem?
RTA(config-router)# neighbor 170.70.20.3 next-hop-self
RTA(config-router)# neighbor 170.70.20.1 next-hop-self
RTB(config-router)# neighbor 170.70.20.1 next-hop-self
RTA(config-router)# bgp default local-preference 200
RTA(config-router)# neighbor 170.70.20.1 weight 2000
RTA(config-router)# neighbor 170.70.20.1 send-community

43. Which two statements accurately describe the RIPng routing protocol? (Choose two.)
RIPng forwards IPv6 broadcasts.
RIPng has a limit of 15 hops.
RIPng is a link-state routing protocol.
RIPng uses poison reverse.
RIPng uses UDP port 238 for updates.

44. In the design of a network that will be based on the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, which two items would be included in the enterprise edge functional component? (Choose two.)
internal web servers
core layer routers
VPN servers
a server farm
an intrusion detection system

45.
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is seeing routes that are advertised by router R2, and R2 is seeing routes that are advertised by R1. Which two statements are true when using EIGRP and an L3 MPLS VPN? (Choose two.)
Router R1 has established an EIGRP neighbor relationship with router PE1.
Router R1 has established an EIGRP neighbor relationship with router PE2.
Router R1 has established an EIGRP neighbor relationship with router R2.
Router R2 has established an EIGRP neighbor relationship with router PE1.
Router R2 has established an EIGRP neighbor relationship with router PE2.
Router R2 has established an EIGRP neighbor relationship with router R1.

46.
Refer to the exhibit. After configuring the IPv6 manual tunnel, a network administrator tries to verify the configuration from R1. Which IP addresses should be included in the extended ping command in order to verify the status of the tunnel?
Target IP address: 10.1.2.2
Source address of interface: 10.1.1.1

Target IP address: 209.165.200.2
Source address of interface: 209.165.200.1

Target IP address: 2001:db8:800:1::2
Source address of interface: 2001:db8:800:1::1

Target IP address: 2001:DB8:2424:2424::2
Source address of interface: 2001:DB8:2424:2424::1

47. Multiple paths exist in the BGP table. Assuming the weights are the same, what will the next determining factor be?
lowest MED
locally originated
shortest AS_Path
lowest origin type
highest local preference

48. Which two variables must match between two OSPF routers to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
area IDs
K-values
process IDs
router priorities
hello and dead intervals

49. When the command distribute-list 1 in serial 0/0 is used, which routing updates would be permitted?
Routing updates that are received on any interface and permitted by ACL 1.
Routing updates that are received on serial 0/0 and permitted by ACL 1.
Routing updates that are received on any interface and permitted by prefix-list 1.
Routing updates that are received on serial 0/0 and permitted by prefix-list 1.
Routing updates that are received on any interface and permitted by route-map 1.
Routing updates that are received on serial 0/0 and permitted by route-map 1.

50. Which two tasks should be conducted during the PPDIOO Prepare phase? (Choose two.)
Develop an implementation plan.
Choose vendors and technical partners.
Establish organizational requirements.
Identify financial justification for upgrade.
Compare network performance with design goals.

51.
Refer to the diagram and configuration. OSPF is configured over Frame Relay using neighbor statements under router ospf mode. Although all PVCs are active, RTB and RTC do not see all OSPF routes in their routing tables. What could be done to fix this problem? (Choose two.)
The frame-relay map statements on all routers should include the broadcast keyword.
The frame-relay map statements should be replaced by using the frame-relay interface-dlci command.
The priority value on the hub router should be set to 0.
The priority value on the spoke routers should be set to 0.
The ip ospf network non-broadcast command should be applied on each router.

52. Which statement about stateless autoconfiguration is true?
A host can autoconfigure itself by appending its MAC address to the local link prefix (64 bits).
Autoconfiguration allows devices to connect themselves to the network via IOS router DHCP services.
Autoconfiguration is well suited for devices such as servers and print servers.
During the autoconfiguration process, a router advertises the IPv6 64-bit prefix of its interface, and the host prepends this prefix to its modified EUI-64 formatted MAC address.
During the autoconfiguration process, the host sends a router advertisement, and the router replies with a router solicitation.

53.
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish a BGP peer relationship. After a network administrator has confirmed that each router can ping the loopback interface of the other router, what can be done to fix this problem?
Add a BGP network command for 4.1.1.0/24 on both routers.
Add the BGP no synchronization command on both routers.
Add the BGP neighbor ebgp-multihop 255 command on both routers.
Add the BGP neighbor update-source serial0 command on both routers.

54. Which three statements are correct about the properties of an OSPF point-to-multipoint network type? (Choose three.)
All routers can be configured as point-to-multipoint.
An OSPF point-to-multipoint network needs more PVCs because it requires a full-mesh topology.
All of the links between the routers are in the same IP subnet.
The DR/BDR is required and must be configured manually.
Cisco point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast mode neighbors must be statically defined.

55. Which two OSPFv3 statements are true? (Choose two.)
OSPF networks are configured under router configuration mode.
The multicast address FF02::6 is used to forward packets to the OSPF DR and BDR.
The router ID is configured using using an IPv4 address.
The router-id router-id command is issued in interface configuration mode.
The router ospf priority priority command is issued under the router configuration mode.

56.
Refer to the exhibit. A GRE tunnel must be configured between routers RTA and RTB. Assume that router RTB has been correctly configured. Which set of commands would correctly configure router RTA to encrypt traffic destined for router RTB?
interface Tunnel0
tunnel source FastEthernet0
tunnel destination 172.16.3.1

interface Tunnel0
tunnel source FastEthernet0
tunnel destination 172.16.13.2

interface Tunnel0
tunnel source FastEthernet0
tunnel destination 192.168.23.3

interface Tunnel0
tunnel source Serial0
tunnel destination 172.16.3.1

interface Tunnel0
tunnel source Serial0
tunnel destination 172.16.13.2

interface Tunnel0
tunnel source Serial0
tunnel destination 192.168.23.3

57.
Refer to the exhibit. Assume all routers are running BGP sessions and both links are operational. Which procedure would ensure that AS1 routers use link 1.1.1.1 for packet transmittal to AS2?
Set RTA local preference to 50 and other AS1 router local preference to 100.
Set RTA local preference to 100 and other AS1 router local preference to 50.
Set RTB local preference to 50 and other AS2 router local preference to 100.
Set RTB local preference to 100 and other AS2 router local preference to 50.

58. What is a characteristic of ADSL?
It is designed to deliver more bandwidth downstream than upstream.
It is designed to deliver more bandwidth upstream than downstream.
The upstream rate ranges from 1.5 to 9 Mb/s.
The downstream rates ranges from 16 to 640 Kb/s.

59. Which two OSPF routing protocol characteristics can be used or modified at redistribution points to help implement a path control strategy? (Choose two.)
metric
route tag
unequal cost load balancing
NSSA translation of Type 7 LSAs to Type 5 LSAs
process ID

60. Which two networks would match the following prefix list? (Choose two.)
ip prefix-list MATCHTHIS seq 5 deny 10.1.0.0/16 ge 24 le 30
10.0.0.0/16
10.0.0.0/24
10.1.0.0/16
10.1.0.0/24
10.1.1.0/30

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