SWITCH Chapter 4 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% - Take Assessment – SWITCH Chapter 4 – CCNP SWITCH: Implementing Cisco IP Switching (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. A client sends a request for an IP address to a DHCP server. Which DHCP message to the client will provide the configuration parameters that include an IP address, a domain name, and a lease for the IP address?

DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPACK

2. A DHCPREQUEST message has been sent from the client to the DHCP server. What information is included in the message?
initial message to locate a DHCP server
formal request for the offered IP address
confirmation that the IP address has been allocated to the client
denial message to reject the first offer from the DHCP server

3.
Refer to the exhibit. The router has been properly configured for the trunking interface. Which statement is true about the routing table on the router?
It will show a next hop address of the switch for both VLANs.
It will show one trunking route to 10.0.0.0/8.
It should contain routes to the 10.10.10.0/24 and the 10.10.11.0/24 networks.
Because the switch is not configured properly to trunk VLAN 1 and VLAN 2, the routing table of the router will not show routes to either VLAN .
Because the switch port fa0/1 is in access mode, the routing table of the router will not show any routes.

4. What is an advantage to using a trunk link to connect a switch to an external router that is providing inter-VLAN routing?
works with any switch that supports VLANs and trunking
lowers latency
provides redundancy to the VLANs
reduces CPU overhead

5.
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration taken on router RTA. Users on VLAN 5 cannot communicate with theusers on VLAN 10. What should be done to fix the problem?
A dynamic routing protocol should be configured on the router.
Two static routes should be configured on the router, each pointing to each subnet.
The Fa0/0 interface should be configured with a primary IP address of 10.10.5.1/24 and a secondary IP address of 10.10.10.1/24.
The subinterfaces of the router should be configured with 802.1Q encapsulation.

6.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the debug ip dhcp server packet output, which statement is true?
The client sends a DHCPDISCOVER that contains IP address 10.1.10.21 to the DHCP server.
The client sends a DHCPREQUEST that contains IP address 10.1.10.21 to the DHCP server.
The client sends the BOOTREPLY broadcast message to inquire for a new IP address.
The client accepts the offer from the DHCP server for the 10.1.10.21 IP address.

7.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the diagram and show ip route command output?
Because no routing protocol has been configured, the router will not forward packets between workstations.
The default gateway for hosts on VLAN 10 should be the Fa0/0 IP address of the router.
The default gateway for hosts on VLAN 10 should be the Fa0/0.1 IP address of the router.
The default gateway for hosts on VLAN 10 should be the Fa0/0.2 IP address of the router.
Because their packets are being trunked, hosts on VLAN 10 do not need a default gateway.

8. Which two statements are true about routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
A routed port behaves like a regular router interface and supports VLAN subinterfaces.
A routed port is a physical switch port with Layer 2 capability.
A routed port is not associated with a particular VLAN.
To create a routed port requires removal of Layer 2 port functionality with the no switchport interface configurationcommand.
The interface vlan global configuration command is used to create a routed port.

9. Which two statements are true about switched virtual interfaces (SVI) on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
An SVI behaves like a regular router interface but does not support VLAN subinterfaces.
An SVI is a physical switch port with Layer 3 capability.
By default, an SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1).
Only one SVI can be associated with a VLAN.
To create an SVI requires removal of Layer 2 port functionality with the no switchport interface configuration command.

10. Which three statements about a routed switch interface are true? (Choose three.)
A routed switch port is a physical device that is associated with several VLANs.
A routed switch port is created by configuring a Layer 2 port with the no switchport interface configuration commandand assigning an IP address.
A routed switch port is created by entering VLAN interface configuration mode and assigning an IP address.
A routed switch port is a virtual Layer 3 interface that can be configured for any VLAN that exists on a Layer 3 switch.
A routed switch port provides an interface that may provide a Layer 3 connection to a next-hop router.
A routed switch port can serve as a default gateway for devices.

11.
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration taken on routers RTA and RTB. All users can ping their gateways, but users on VLAN 5 and VLAN 10 cannot communicate with the users on VLAN 20. What should be done to solve the problem?
A dynamic routing protocol or static routes should be configured on the routers.
A trunk should be configured between routers RTA and RTB.
RTA interface Fa0/1 and RTB Fa0/1 should be configured with three subinterfaces, each with ISL encapsulation.
RTA interface Fa0/1 and RTB Fa0/1 should be configured with three subinterfaces, each with 802.1Q encapsulation.

12. Which statement describes what occurs when a DHCP request is forwarded through a router that has been configured with the ip helper-address command?
The router replaces the source MAC address included in the DHCP request with its own MAC address.
The router replaces the source IP address of the DHCP request with the IP address that is specified with the ip helper-address command.
The router replaces the broadcast destination IP address of the DHCP request with the unicast IP address that is specified with the ip helper-address command.
The router replaces the unicast destination IP address of the DHCP request with the unicast IP address that is specified with the ip helper-address command.

13. A client computer is set up for DHCP and needs an IP configuration. During the DHCP client configuration process, whichresponse will enable the client to begin using the assigned address immediately?
DHCPACK
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPOFFER
DHCPDISCOVER

14.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to ensure that CEF is functioning properly on the switches between hosts A and B. If the administrator wants to verify the CEF FIB table entry for the route 10.10.5.0/24 on Sw_MLSA, what should the adjacency IP address be?
10.10.10.1
10.10.10.2
10.10.5.1
10.10.5.2

15. Which three events will cause the Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table to be updated? (Choose three.)
An ARP entry for the destination next hop changes, ages out, or is removed.
The FIB table is cleared with the clear fib adjacency * command.
The routing table entry for the next hop changes.
The IP packets have an expiring TTL counter.
The TCAM table is flushed and reactivated.
The routing table entry for a prefix changes.

16. Which condition will cause a packet to be process-switched instead of CEF switched?
packets that are switched to an outgoing interface with an outbound ACL applied
packets with a destination interface that is chosen by a routing protocol
packets that need to be fragmented on the outgoing interface
packets with a destination interface that is chosen by a static route
packets that use TCP header options

17. Which statement is true about the CEF forwarding process?
The FIB table contains the Layer 2 rewrite information.
Adjacency table lookups use the closest Layer 3 prefix match.
The adjacency table eliminates the need for the ARP protocol.
After an IP prefix match is made, the process determines the associated Layer 2 header rewrite information from theadjacency table.

18. What is true about TCAM lookups that are associated with CEF switching?
TCAM includes only Layer 3 lookup information.
A single TCAM lookup provides Layer 2, Layer 3, and ACL information
TCAM lookup tables are used only for the Layer 3 forwarding operation.
TCAM lookup tables are used only for the rapid processing of ACLs within CEF.

19.
Refer to the exhibit. What additional configuration is required for host A to receive IP configuration from the DHCP server?
The ip address dhcp command is required on interface Fa0/0.
The ip dhcp information option command is required on interface Fa0/1.
The ip helper-address 10.1.2.10 command is required on interface Fa0/0.
The ip forward-protocol 37 global configuration command is required to forward DNS requests to IP address 10.1.2.10.
The ip forward-protocol 67 global configuration command is required to forward DHCP requests to IP address 10.1.2.10.
The ip forward-protocol 69 global configuration command is required to forward TFTP requests to IP address 10.1.2.10.

20.
Refer to the exhibit and the show ip cef output. What can be concluded from the output?
The output validates that the CEF FIB entry for 10.10.5.0/24 is correct.
The cached adjacency address is 10.10.10.1.
The next hop address is 10.10.10.1.
The output shows that packets destined to 10.10.5.0/24 have not been processed by CEF.

Read more ...

SWITCH Chapter 3 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% - Take Assessment – SWITCH Chapter 3 – CCNP SWITCH: Implementing Cisco IP Switching (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. One switch in a Layer 2 switched spanning-tree domain is converted to PVRST+ using the spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration mode command. The remaining switches are running PVST+. What is the effect on the spanning-tree operation?

Spanning tree is effectively disabled in the network.
The PVRST+ switch forwards 802.1D BPDUs, but does not participate as a node in any spanning tree.
All switches default to one 802.1D spanning tree for all VLANs.
The PVSRT+ reverts to PVST+ to interoperate with the PVST+ switches.

2.

Refer to the exhibit. What implementation of spanning tree best describes the spanning-tree operational mode of the switch?
IEEE 802.1D
IEEE 802.w
IEEE 802.1s
PVRST+

3.

Refer to the exhibit. What conclusion does the output support?
PortFast is enabled on interface Fa0/6.
IEEE 802.1w is enabled on VLAN 1.
The forward delay timer has been changed from the default value.
Standard IEEE 802.1D behavior is shown.

4.

Refer to the exhibit. After the sequence of commands is entered, how many VLANs will be assigned to the default instance?
4094
4064
4062
4061

5.

Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions does the output show to be true? (Choose two.)
DLS1 is running IEEE 802.1s on instance 1.
DLS1 is running IEEE 802.1D on instance 1.
DLS1 is the root bridge for instance 1.
Interface Fa0/12 will move into the errdisable state if a BPDU is received.
Interfaces Fa0/1 through Fa0/6 are trunk ports.

6. Which three parameters should match all switches within an MST region? (Choose three.)
port costs on trunk ports
configuration name
revision number
trunk encapsulation method
bridge priority
VLAN-to-instance mappings

7. Users complain that they lost connectivity to all resources in the network. A network administrator suspects the presence of a bridging loop as a root cause of the problem. Which two actions will determine the existence of the bridging loop? (Choose two.)
Confirm MAC port security is enabled on all access switches.
Check the port utilization on devices and look for abnormal values.
Verify that the management VLAN is properly configured on all root bridges.
Capture the traffic on the saturated link and verify if duplicate packets are seen.
Ensure that the root guard and loop guard are properly configured on all distribution links.

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW1 is receiving traffic from SW2. However, SW2 is not receiving traffic from SW1. Which STP feature should be implemented to prevent inadvertent loops in the network?
UDLD
PortFast
BPDU guard
BPDU filtering

9. Which interfaces should loop guard be enabled on?
root ports
designated ports
root port and alternate ports
ports configured with PortFast
root port and ports configured with PortFast

10. What will happen when a BPDU is received on a loop guard port that is in a loop-inconsistent state?
The port will transition to blocking state.
The port will transition to forwarding state automatically.
The port will be disabled and the administrator must re-enable it manually.
The port will transition to the appropriate state as determined by the normal function of the spanning tree.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. STP is enabled on all switches in the network. The port on switch A that connects to switch B is half duplex. The port on switch B that connects to switch A is full duplex. What are three problems that this scenario could create? (Choose three.)
Switch B will become the root switch.
Switch B may unblock its port to switch C, thereby creating a loop.
Switch A is performing carrier sense and collision detection, and switch B is not.
Autonegotiation results in both switch A and switch B failing to perform carrier sense.
BPDUs may not successfully negotiate port states on the link between switch A and switch B.
Spanning tree will keep re-calculating, thereby consuming all the CPU normally used for traffic.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. STP is configured on all switches in the network. Recently, the user on workstation A lost connectivity to the rest of the network. At the same time, the administrator received the console message:

%SPANTREE-2-RX_PORTFAST:Received BPDU on PortFast enable port.Disabling 2/1

What is the cause of the problem?
STP PortFast feature has been disabled on port 2/1.
STP PortFast feature has been enabled on port 2/1.
PAgP has removed port 2/1 from the EtherChannel bundle.
The STP PortFast BPDU Guard feature has disabled port 2/1 on the switch.

13. What are three important steps in troubleshooting STP problems? (Choose three.)
Administratively create bridge loops and see what path the traffic takes.
Administratively disable multicasting and check to see if connectivity is restored.
Check each side of a point-to-point link for duplex mismatch.
Adjust BPDU timers so that there is less overhead traffic on the switching fabric.
Administratively disable ports that should be blocking and check to see if connectivity is restored.
Capture traffic on a saturated link and check whether identical frames are traversing multiple links.

14. Which statement is true about UDLD?
It is automatically enabled.
It allows devices to transmit traffic one way.
It will disable an EtherChannel bundle if one link has failed.
It allows a switch to detect a unidirectional link and shut down the affected interface.

15. Which two statements are true about STP root guard? (Choose two.)
Root guard is enabled on a per-port basis.
Root guard requires that PortFast be enabled on a switch port.
Root guard re-enables a switch port once it stops receiving superior BPDUs.
Root guard should be configured on all ports on the desired root bridge to prevent another bridge from becoming the root.
If a root guard enabled port receives a inferior BPDU from a nonroot switch, the port transitions to the blocking state to prevent a root bridge election.

16. What happens when a switch running IEEE 802.1D receives a topology change message from the root bridge?
The switch uses the forward delay timer to age out entries in the MAC address table.
The switch uses the max-age timer to age out entries in the MAC address table.
The switch uses the hello to age out entries in the MAC address table.
The switch uses the forward delay and the max-age timer to age out entries in the MAC address table.

17. Which STP timer defines the length of time spent in the listening and learning states?
hello time
forward aging
forward delay
max age
max delay

18. Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
An RSTP BPDU carries information about port roles and is sent to neighbor switches only.
RSTP elects a root bridge in exactly the same way as 802.1D.
RSTP is capable of reverting back to 802.1D but still maintains the benefits of 802.1w.
RSTP is recognized as the IEEE 802.1w standard.
There are only three RSTP port states: discarding, listening, and forwarding.
UplinkFast and BackboneFast are compatible with RSTP.

19. Which protocol extends the IEEE 802.1w Rapid Spanning Tree (RST) algorithm to multiple spanning trees?
STP
RSTP+
CST
MST

20. Which protocol should an administrator recommend to manage bridged links when the customer requires a fully redundant network that can utilize load balancing technologies and reconverge on link failures in less than a second?
IEEE 802.1Q (CST)
IEEE 802.1s (MST)
Cisco PVST+
IEEE 802.1D(STP)

21. Refer to the exhibit. How far is a broadcast frame that is sent by computer A propagated in the LAN domain?
none of the computers will receive the broadcast frame
computer A, computer B, computer C
computer A, computer D, computer G
computer B, computer C
computer D, computer G
computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, computer F, computer G, computer H, computer I

22. The network administrator wants to separate hosts in Building A into two VLANs numbered 20 and 30. Which two statements are true concerning VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
The VLANs may be named.
VLAN information is saved in the startup configuration.
Non-default VLANs created manually must use the extended range VLAN numbers.
The network administrator may create the VLANs in either global configuration mode or VLAN database mode.
Both VLANs may be named BUILDING_A to distinguish them from other VLANs in different geographical locations.

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning interface Fa0/5?
The default native VLAN is being used.
The trunking mode is set to auto.
Trunking can occur with non-Cisco switches.
VLAN information about the interface encapsulates the Ethernet frames.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?
A
A, B
A, B, D, G
A, D, F
C, E
C, E, F

25. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are new switches being installed in the topology shown in the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 has been configured with trunk mode “on”. Which statement is true about forming a trunk link between the switches SW1 and SW2?
Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it supports DTP.
Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 can only become a trunk link if statically configured as a trunk.
Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link if the neighboring interface is configured in nonegotiate mode.
Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link automatically with no consideration of the configuration on the neighboring interface.

26. Which statement describes how hosts on VLANs communicate?
Hosts on different VLANs use VTP to negotiate a trunk.
Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers.
Hosts on different VLANs should be in the same IP network.
Hosts on different VLANs examine VLAN ID in the frame tagging to determine if the frame for their network.

27. Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.)
VLANs improve network performance by regulating flow control and window size.
VLANs enable switches to route packets to remote networks via VLAN ID filtering.
VLANs reduce network cost by reducing the number of physical ports required on switches.
VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and applications.
VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast storms.

28. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?
VLAN 1 can never be deleted.
VLAN 1 can only be deleted by deleting the vlan.dat file.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.

29. What is the effect of the switchport mode dynamic desirable command?
DTP cannot negotiate the trunk since the native VLAN is not the default VLAN.
The remote connected interface cannot negotiate a trunk unless it is also configured as dynamic desirable.
The connected devices dynamically determine when data for multiple VLANs must be transmitted across the link and bring the trunk up as needed.
A trunk link is formed if the remote connected device is configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto or switchport mode trunk commands.

30. What is a valid consideration for planning VLAN traffic across multiple switches?
Configuring interswitch connections as trunks will cause all hosts on any VLAN to receive broadcasts from the other VLANs.
A trunk connection is affected by broadcast storms on any particular VLAN that is carried by that trunk.
Restricting trunk connections between switches to a single VLAN will improve efficiency of port usage.
Carrying all required VLANs on a single access port will ensure proper traffic separation.

31. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Cisco switches only support the ISL trunking protocol.
The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.
By default, Switch1 will only allow VLAN 5 across the link.
A common native VLAN should have been configured on the switches.

32. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switch that produced the output shown? (Choose two.)
The network administrator configured VLANs 1002-1005.
The VLANs are in the active state and are in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
A FDDI trunk has been configured on this switch.
The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mode for Fast Ethernet interface 0/1.
Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices attached to ports fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the use of a Layer 3 device.

33. Switch port fa0/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/1?
Disable DTP.
Delete any VLANs currently being trunked through port Fa0/1.
Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to default.
Enter the switchport mode access command in interface configuration mode.

34. What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose two.)
VLAN1 should renamed.
VLAN 1 is the management VLAN.
All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.
Links between switches must be members of VLAN1.

35. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring switch port is in “dynamic desirable” mode?
dynamic desirable mode
on or dynamic desirable mode
on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode
on, auto, dynamic desirable, or nonegotiate mode

36. What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true?
802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
802.1q does NOT require the FCS of the original frame to be recalculated.
802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.

37. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2 and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1.50.0/24 subnet range. Computer A can communicate with computer B, but not with computer C or computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
There is a native VLAN mismatch.
The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
The router is not properly configured for inter-VLAN routing.
VLAN 50 is not allowed to entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2.

38. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
The ports cannot communicate with other ports.
The ports default back to the management VLAN.
The ports automatically become a part of VLAN1.
The ports remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN.

39. Refer to the exhibit. Computer B is unable to communicate with computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The link between the switches is up but not trunked.
VLAN 3 is not an allowed VLAN to enter the trunk between the switches.
The router is not properly configured to route traffic between the VLANs.
Computer D does not have a proper address for the VLAN 3 address space.

40. Refer to the exhibit. Company HR is adding PC4, a specialized application workstation, to a new company office. The company will add a switch, S3, connected via a trunk link to S2, another switch. For security reasons the new PC will reside in the HR VLAN, VLAN 10. The new office will use the 172.17.11.0/24 subnet. After installation, users on PC1 are unable to access shares on PC4. What is the likely cause?
The switch to switch connection must be configured as an access port to permit access to VLAN 10 on S3.
The new PC is on a different subnet so Fa0/2 on S3 must be configured as a trunk port.
PC4 must use the same subnet as PC1.
A single VLAN cannot span multiple switches.

41. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.
Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

Read more ...

SWITCH Chapter 2 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% - Take Assessment – SWITCH Chapter 2 – CCNP SWITCH: Implementing Cisco IP Switching (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1.

Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly describes the function of a switch that is configured in VTP transparent mode?
option 1
option 2
option 3
option 4
option 5

2.

Refer to the exhibit. How should SW2 be configured in order to participate in the same VTP domain and populate the VLAN information across the domain?
Switch SW2 should be configured as a VTP client.
Switch SW2 should be configured for VTP version 1.
Switch SW2 should be configured with no VTP domain password.
Switch SW2 should be configured as a VTP server with a higher revision number.

3. A network administrator is tasked with protecting a server farm by implementing private VLANs (PVLANs). A server is only allowed to communicate with its default gateway and other related servers. Which type of PVLAN should be configured on the switch ports that connect to the servers?
isolated
promiscuous
secondary VLAN
community

4.

Refer to the exhibit. During the network upgrade process, a network administrator included switch SW2 in the network. Immediately afterward, the users on VLAN10 who were connected to SW10 lost connectivity to the network. Based on the show vtp status command outputs that are provided, what could be done to remedy the problem?
Configure switch SW2 in VTP client mode.
Configure switch SW2 with VTP version 1.
Configure switch SW2 with the higher revision number.
Configure switch SW2 with the same VTP domain name that SW1 has.

5.

Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and later inserted into the production network. Before a trunk link has been connected between the two switches SW1 and SW2, a network administrator issued the show vtp status command as displayed in the exhibit. Immediately after the switches were interconnected, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the possible reason for the problem?
The switches can exchange VTP information only through an access link.
Switch SW2 receives more VLANs from switch SW1 than can be supported.
Switch SW2 has the pruning eligible parameter enabled, which causes pruning of all VLANs from the trunk port.
Switch SW2 has a higher VTP server revision number, which causes deletion of the VLAN information in the VTP domain.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. The web servers WS_1 and WS_2 need to be accessed by external and internal users. For security reasons, the servers do not have to communicate with each other although they are located on the same subnet. Both servers need to communicate with the data server that is located on the inside network. Which configuration will isolate the servers from inside attacks?
Ports Fa3/1, Fa3/2, Fa3/34, and Fa3/35 on DSW1 will be defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports.
Ports Fa3/1, Fa3/2, Fa3/34, and Fa3/35 on DSW1 will be defined as primary VLAN community ports.
Ports Fa3/1 and Fa3/2 on DSW1 will be defined as secondary VLAN isolated ports. Ports Fa3/34 and Fa3/35 will be defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports.
Ports Fa3/1 and Fa3/2 on DSW1 will be defined as secondary VLAN community ports. Ports Fa3/34 and Fa3/35 will be defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports.

7.

Refer to the exhibit. The DNS servers DNS1 and DNS2 are redundant copies so they need to communicate with each other and to the Internet. The web server and the SMTP server need to communicate with the Internet, but for security purposes the web and the SMTP servers should not be reachable from the DNS servers. What private VLAN design should be implemented?
All servers should be configured in separate isolated VLANs. All isolated VLANs should be in the same primary VLAN.
All servers should be configured in separate community VLANs. All community VLANs should be in the same primary VLAN.
The DNS1 and DNS2 servers should be configured in a community VLAN. The web and SMTP servers should be configured in an isolated VLAN. Both the community and isolated VLANs should be part of the primary VLAN.
The DNS1 and DNS2 servers should be configured in an isolated VLAN. The web and SMTP servers should be configured in a community VLAN. Both the community and isolated VLANs should be in the same primary VLAN.

8. When configuring an EtherChannel, given that one end of the link is configured with PAgP mode desirable, which PAgP modes can be configured on the opposite end of the link in order to form an active channel? (Choose two.)
off
on
desirable
auto

9. Which three effects does the interface command switchport host have when entered on a switch? (Choose three.)
sets the switch port mode to access
enables BPDU guard
enables spanning tree PortFast
enables root guard
disables channel grouping
enables BPDU filtering

10. What are three characteristics of a VLAN access port? (Choose three.)
A switch port can become an access port through static or dynamic configuration.
An access port is associated with a single VLAN.
An access port should have the 802.1q encapsulation associated with it.
An access port created with the switchport mode access command will send DTP frames by default.
An access port is created with the switchport mode access command and then associated with a VLAN with the switchport access vlan command.
The VLAN that the access port is assigned to will be automatically deleted if it does not exist in the VLAN database of the switch.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is unable to ping between two workstations, PC1 and PC2, that are connected to switch3548. PC1 is connected to port Fa0/19, and PC2 is connected to port Gi0/2. Given the output of the show vlan command, which statement is true?
Both workstations are on the same VLAN.
Both workstations are in the default VLAN.
Inter-VLAN routing is not properly configured.
The VLAN interface is administratively shut down.
PC2 is connected to a trunk port instead of an access port.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 and Switch2 are unable to establish an operational trunk connection. What is the problem between the connection on Switch1 and Switch2?
encapsulation mismatch
switchport mode mismatch
MTU mismatch
VTP mismatch
DTP mismatch
native VLAN mismatch

13.

Refer to the exhibit. Given the exhibited command output, which statement is true?
Interface Fa0/1 is configured for ISL trunking.
Interface Fa0/1 is configured as an access port.
Interface Fa0/1 is configured as an SVI.
Interface Fa0/1 is configured for 802.1Q trunking.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Both SW1 and SW2 are configured with the PAgP desirable mode. Which statement is true?
Both switches will initiate channeling negotiation and will not be able to form a channel.
Both switches will initiate channeling negotiation and will form a channel between them.
Neither switch will initiate channeling negotiation and will not be able to form a channel between them.
Neither switch will initiate channeling negotiation but will form a channel between them.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. Given the configuration information of the CAT1 and CAT2 switches, which statement is true?
LACP will form a channel between the switches.
Because the port-channel numbers do not match, LACP will not form a channel between the switches.
Because the channel-group commands on SW2 should be set to “on,” LACP will not form a channel between the switches.
LACP will form a 200-Mb/s channel between the switches.

16. Which two items are benefits of implementing local VLANs within the Enterprise Architecture? (Choose two.)
A single VLAN can extend further than its associated distribution-layer switch.
Failures at Layer 2 are isolated to a small subset of users.
High availability is made possible because local VLAN traffic on access switches can now be passed directly to the core switches across an alternate Layer 3 path.
Layer 3 routing between VLANs can now be applied at the access layer.
Local VLANs are limited to the access and distribution layer.

17. Which two statements describe Cisco best practices for VLAN design? (Choose two.)
Local VLANs should extend no further than the local core router.
Local VLANs should extend no further than the local distribution layer switch.
Local VLANs eliminate the need for redundant access to distribution layer links.
Local VLANs provide a simple design that is easy to troubleshoot.

18. Which two statements are true about the 802.1Q trunking protocol? (Choose two.)
Untagged frames will be placed in the configured native VLAN of a port.
It is a proprietary protocol that is supported on Cisco switches only.
Private VLAN configurations are not supported.
The native VLAN interface configurations must match at both ends of the link or frames could be dropped.

19. In the context of the Enterprise Composite Architecture, which statement is true about best-practice design of local VLANs?
Local VLAN is a feature that has only local significance to the switch.
Local VLANs do not extend beyond the building distribution layer.
Local VLANs should be created based upon the job function of the end user.
Local VLANs should be advertised to all switches in the network.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the switch CAT2? (Choose two.)
Eleven VLANs were manually configured on the switch.
Six VLANs were either manually configured on the switch or learned via VTP.
Interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1.
Interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in an unspecified VLAN.
VLAN 100 is in dynamic desirable mode.
VLAN 100 has no active access ports.

21. What happens when an ISL-enabled trunk receives an unencapsulated frame?
The frame is dropped.
The frame is processed as part of the native VLAN frames.
The switch will hold the untagged frame and send a BPDU to the originating switch.
The switch will associate the frame with the VLAN that the receiving port is assigned to.

Read more ...

SWITCH Chapter 1 CCNP 6.0 2012 100% - Take Assessment – SWITCH Chapter 1 – CCNP SWITCH: Implementing Cisco IP Switching (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. What two traffic types must be included when calculating the bandwidth requirements to support a voice stream in an IP telephony network? (Choose two.)

voice queues
voice carrier stream
voice services traffic
call control signaling
routing updates

2. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
require dedicated bandwidth allocation
can be used in video conference applications
may require real-time interaction between peer devices
can be used to fulfill the requirements for IP phone calls
may require a direct physical connection between devices
require centralized authentication

3. What are the responsibilities of devices that are located at the core layer of the hierarchical design model? (Choose two.)
access list filtering
packet manipulation
high-speed backbone switching
interconnection of distribution layer devices
redundancy between the core devices only

4. A network designer must provide a rationale to a customer for a design that will move an enterprise from a flat network topology to a hierarchical network topology. Which two features of the hierarchical design make it the better choice? (Choose two.)
reduced cost
scalability
less equipment required
higher availability
lower bandwidth requirements

5. During an evaluation of the currently installed network, the IT staff performs a gap analysis to determine whether the existing network infrastructure can support certain new features. At which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach does this activity occur?
prepare phase
plan phase
design phase
implement phase
operate phase
optimize phase

6. Which phase of the Cisco Lifecycle Services strategy may prompt a network redesign if too many network problems and errors arise in the network?
prepare
plan
design
implement
operate
optimize

7. Which portion of the enterprise network provides access to network communication services for the end users and devices that are spread over a single geographic location?
enterprise edge
campus module
WAN module
Internet edge
data center

8. Which family of Cisco switches is specifically designed for data centers?
Catalyst 6500
Catalyst 2000
Nexus 7000
Catalyst 4500

9. What type of specialized memory is used to facilitate high performance switching in Cisco multilayer switches?
content-addressable memory (CAM)
ternary content addressable memory (TCAM)
address resolution protocol (ARP) memory
Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) memory

10. Which Catalyst 6500 switch component integrates on individual line modules as well as on the supervisor engine?
CPU
Flash
ASIC
NVRAM

11. Which technology consistently increases CPU load on multilayer Catalyst switches?
quality of service (QoS)
access control lists (ACLs)
policy-based routing (PBR)
network address translation (NAT)

12. Which family of Cisco switches supports Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)?
Catalyst 4948G
Catalyst 4500
Catalyst 6500
Nexus 5000

13. Which family of Cisco switches supports the greatest number of slots?
Catalyst 4500
Catalyst 6500
Nexus 5000
Nexus 7000

14. Which two features are unavailable on a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
use of ASICs
Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping
QoS marking
Time to Live (TTL) decrementing
rewrite of the source and destination MAC addresses

15. What is the purpose of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture?
It replaces the three-layer hierarchical model with a flat network approach.
It provides an enterprise-wide system network architecture that helps protect, optimize, and grow the network infrastructure that supports the business processes of a company.
It provides services and functionality to the core layer by grouping various components into a single component that is located in the access layer.
It reduces overall network traffic by grouping server farms, the management server, corporate intranet, and e-commerce routers in the same layer.

16. On what is Layer 3 switching fundamentally based?
access control
the ability to circumvent CPU processing
software-based forwarding
Parallel eXpress Forwarding (PXF)

17. A user needs to access a file server that is located in another department. Which layer of the Cisco Hierarchical Network Model will process the traffic first?
access
core
distribution
control

18. In its network design, a company lists this equipment:
Two Catalyst 4503 Layer 3 switches
One 5500 security appliance firewall
Two Catalyst 6509 switches
Two lightweight access points
Two Catalyst 2960 switches
Which two types of devices from the list would be appropriate to use at the access layer to provide end-user connectivity? (Choose two.)
Catalyst 4503 switches
Cisco 5500 security appliance firewall
Catalyst 6509 switches
lightweight access points
Catalyst 2960 switches

19. Which protocol is required for Cisco Express Forwarding to be able to successfully forward packets on a multilayer switch?
Cisco Discovery Protocol
Spanning Tree Protocol
Address Resolution Protocol
Dynamic Trunking Protocol
VLAN Trunking Protocol

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Given the traditional hierarchical design model, which set of features correctly identifies the modules of an enterprise network?
1. Multilayer
2. Edge
3. Security
4. Internet Gateway

1. Workgroup Switch
2. PSTN
3. Connectivity
4. Telecommuter Gateway

1. VoIP and Multilayer
2. PSTN Edge
3. Firewall
4. Home Branch

1. Workgroup and VoIP
2. Core
3. Internet Backbone
4. Telecommuter Edge

1. Building Access and Distribution
2. Internet Connectivity
3. Edge Distribution
4. Remote Access and VPN

1. Campus Edge
2. WAN Services
3. Core Security
4. PSTN Edge

21. On what is Layer 3 switching fundamentally based?
Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)
the ability to circumvent CPU processing
software-based forwarding
Parallel eXpress Forwarding (PXF)

Read more ...

SWITCH Final Exam CCNP 6.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – SWITCH Final Exam – CCNP SWITCH: Implementing Cisco IP Switching (Version 6.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1.

Refer to the exhibit. The indicated configuration was established on the HSRP standby router RTB. However, the console message %IP-4-DUPADDR started appearing almost immediately on the RTB router. Given the output of the show standby brief command on RTA, what is the cause of the problem?
The command standby preempt should only be applied on the active router.
The subnet mask is missing from the standby ip 10.1.1.1 command.
The group number 50 is missing in the Router RTB configuration commands.
The priority number 150 is missing in the Router RTB configuration commands.
The virtual IP address should be the same as the active router.
The ports on the switch must be configured with the spanning-tree PortFast feature.

2. Which statement correctly explains the process of mitigating ARP attacks on a switch where dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) has been configured?
All intercepted packets that come from untrusted ports are dropped.
All intercepted packets that come from trusted ports are sent to untrusted ports only.
The intercepted packets are verified against the DHCP snooping binding table for valid IP-to-MAC bindings.
For all intercepted packets, an ARP request is sent to the DHCP server for IP-to-MAC address resolution.

3.
Refer to the exhibit. What feature does an SNMP manager need to be able to set a parameter on ACSw1?
a manager who is using an SNMP string of K44p0ut
a manager who is using an Inform Request MIB
a manager who is using host 192.168.0.5
a manager who is using authPriv

4. Which statement is true concerning the core layer within the hierarchical design model?
Remote users are granted access to the network through the core.
Routing should be configured without traffic filtering, address translation, or other packet manipulation at the core.
The core, which acts as the front door to a network, is designed to prevent unauthorized users from gaining entry.
The core provides an optimized and reliable transport structure by using a combination of route summaries, distribution lists, and route maps.

5. When a port security violation occurs on a switch port, the switch sends a syslog message but does not shut down the port. What port security mode is in effect?
sticky
shutdown
restrict
protect

6. Which three steps are required to configure interfaces as routed ports on a multilayer Catalyst switch? (Choose three.)
Enable IP routing globally.
Assign IP addresses to routed ports.
Configure SVI for each VLAN in the network.
Configure 802.1 Q encapsulation on routed ports.
Disable Power over Ethernet (PoE) on the physical Layer 3 interfaces.
Disable Layer 2 functionality on interfaces that will be configured as routed ports.

7. A bridging loop occurs in a network and disrupts user connectivity. What action should be taken by a network administrator to restore connectivity?
Disable ports that should be in the blocking state.
Disable ports that should be in the forwarding state.
Disable and re-enable all ports on the distribution switches.
Disable all ports on the distribution switches and replace with new switches.

8. Which three actions can cause problems with a VTP implementation? (Choose three.)
using a non-trunk link to connect switches
using non-Cisco switches
configuring all switches to be in VTP server mode
not using any VTP passwords on any switches
using lowercase on one switch and uppercase on another switch for domain names
having a VTP transparent switch in between a VTP server switch and a VTP client switch (all switches in the same VTP domain)

9.
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be made based on the output? (Choose two.)
Interfaces Fa0/1 through Fa0/6 are trunk ports.
Switch DLS1 is not the root bridge for VLAN 1.
The Cost column in the lower part of the exhibit is not the cumulative root path cost.
The default spanning-tree timers have been adjusted.
That Fa0/12 is displaying the alternate port role indicates that PVRST+ is enabled.

10 Which QoS requirement should be taken into account when implementing VoIP in a campus environment?
The QoS requirements should accommodate the best effort delivery for voice traffic.
The QoS requirements should accommodate the bursty nature of voice traffic.
The QoS requirements should accommodate the intensive demand on bandwidth for voice traffic.
The QoS requirements should accommodate the smooth demand on bandwidth, low latency, and delay for voice traffic.

11. When troubleshooting GLBP in an environment with a VLAN that spans multiple access layer switches, a network engineer discovers that suboptimal paths are being used for upstream traffic. What is the recommended solution?
Use HSRP instead of GLBP.
Adjust the GLBP timers.
Configure spanning tree so that the spanning-tree topology adjusts with the GLBP active virtual forwarder (AVF).
Disable GLBP preemption on all route processors.

12.
Refer to the exhibit. What happens if interface gigabitEthernet 5/1 on SwitchA stops receiving UDLD packets?
UDLD stops trying to establish a connection with the neighbor.
UDLD changes the port state to err-disable.
UDLD changes the port to loop-inconsistent blocking state.
UDLD sends hello messages to its neighbor at a rate of one per second to attempt to recover the connection.

13. How should a switch port be configured for a connection to a standalone wireless access point that provides multiple VLAN-separated SSIDs?
as a trunk port
as a routed port
as an access port
as a switched virtual interface

14 Which two procedures should be implemented and in place when deploying VoIP in a campus network? (Choose two.)
Keep voice and data traffic in the same VLAN and mark the traffic for high priority treatment.
Create voice VLANs to keep voice traffic separate from other data to ensure special handling of the traffic.
Configure traffic shaping QoS policy to guarantee minimum delay for the voice traffic.
Configure QoS policy to classify the voice traffic in the priority queue to guarantee reserved bandwidth allocation for the traffic.
Configure the Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) congestion avoidance mechanism to guarantee that the voice traffic will be placed in the priority queue.

15. What are three possible misconfigurations or indicators of misconfigurations on a Layer 3 interface? (Choose three.)
wrong IP address or subnet mask
ports in the wrong VLAN
mismatch between SVI and VLAN numbering
disabled VTP pruning
downed SVI
ACL on wrong interface

16. What type of queuing provides the best quality for voice applications?
custom queuing
FIFO queuing
priority queuing
weighted round robin (WRR) queuing

17.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem between the connection on Switch1 and Switch2?
native VLAN mismatch
encapsulation mismatch
switchport mode mismatch
VTP mismatch
DTP mismatch
hardware failure

18.
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit contains the configuration for a Cisco access device. How will someone dialing in be authenticated?
local username and password
TACACS+ server
RADIUS server and, if that fails, local username and password
TACACS+ server
TACACS+ server and, if that fails, local username and password
RADIUS server and, if that fails, TACACS+ server

19.
Which STP enhancement should be configured in the network to prevent a nondesignated port to transition to a forwarding state when a topology change occurs?
Root guard should be implemented on the Layer 2 ports between the distribution switches.
PortFast should be implemented on the uplink ports from the access switches to the distribution switches.
Loop guard should be implemented on the Layer 2 ports between DSW1 and DSW2 and on the uplink ports from the access switches to the distribution switches.
BPDU guard should be implemented on the Layer 2 ports between DSW1 and DSW2 and on the uplink ports from the access switches to the distribution switches.

20. What are two actions a hacker may take in a VLAN hopping attack? (Choose two.)
replying to ARP requests that are intended for other recipients
sending malicious dynamic trunking protocol (DTP) frames
replying to DHCP requests that are intended for a DHCP server
sending a unicast flood of Ethernet frames with distinct source MAC addresses
sending frames with two 802.1Q headers

21.
A network administrator wants to implement inter-VLAN routing in the network. Which interfaces should be configured as routed ports?
all interfaces on links 5 and 6
all interfaces on links 1, 2, 3, and 4
all interfaces on links 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
all interfaces between the distribution and the access switches

22. Which three actions are taken when the command switchport host is entered on a switch port? (Choose three.)
BPDU guard is enabled.
Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is disabled.
VLAN trunking protocol (VTP) is disabled.
PortFast is enabled.
Trunking is disabled.
Channel group is disabled.

23. Which two statements are true about routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
A routed port behaves like a regular router interface and supports VLAN subinterfaces.
A routed port is a physical switch port with Layer 2 capability.
A routed port is not associated with a particular VLAN.
To create a routed port requires removal of Layer 2 port functionality with the no switchport interface configuration command.
The interface vlan global configuration command is used to create a routed port.

24.
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the switch is running Multiple Spanning Tree (MST), which conclusion can be made based on the output?
Spanning-tree load balancing is in effect.
All VLANs are mapped to MST instance 2.
PVRST+ is still operating on switch DLS1.
PVST+ is still operating on switch DLS1.
MST will require fewer resources than PVST+ or PVRST+.

25.
Refer to the exhibit. Switches DSw1 and DSw2 are configured with the HSRP virtual IP address 10.10.10.1, and standby priority is set to 100. Assume both switches finish booting at the same time and HSRP is operating as expected. On the basis of this information, which three HSRP statements are true? (Choose three.)
Applying the standby 32 timers 10 30 command on the Gi0/2 interfaces of each switch would decrease the failover time.
If the DSw1 and DSw2 switches have been configured to preempt, then DSw2 will be the active router.
If the DSw1 switch is configured with the standby preempt command and DSw2 is not, then DSw1 will be the active router.
The HSRP group number in this HSRP configuration is HSRP group number 50.
The standby track command is useful for tracking interfaces that are not configured for HSRP.
When host A sends an ARP request for 10.10.10.1, Virtual Router replies with the MAC address of the active router.

26. What is the recommended maximum one-way jitter when implementing video over IP for real-time video applications?
1 ms
2 ms
5 ms
10 ms

27.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the provided show ip dhcp snooping command, which statement is true?
Only port Fa0/24 can send and receive all DHCP messages.
Ports Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/24 can send and receive all DHCP messages.
Only ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/2 can send and receive all DHCP messages.
Ports Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/24 can send and receive only DHCP requests.

28. Which two items in the TCAM table are referenced in the process of forwarding a packet? (Choose two.)
VLAN ID
ACL information
destination MAC address
QoS information
source MAC address
hash key

29. Catalyst Catalyst 6500 switches support which three Supervisor Engine redundancy features? (Choose three.)
Route Processor Redundancy+ (RPR+)
distributed CEF (dCEF)
Stateful Switchover (SSO)
Resilient Packet Ring (RPR)
Nonstop Forwarding (NSF)
Per Line Card Traffic Policing

30. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)
The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.
Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and index.
All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.
Root switches have all ports set as root ports.
Nonroot switches each have only one root port.

31. Which benefit is provided by centralizing servers in a data center server farm?
It keeps client-to-server traffic local to a single subnet.
Servers that are located in a data center require less bandwidth.
It is easier to filter and prioritize traffic to and from the data center.
Server farms are not subject to denial of service attacks.

32.
Refer to the exhibit. What restriction will be presented in a campus enterprise network that is designed with four large distribution building blocks?
The implementation of link aggregation will be limited.
The implementation of IGP routing protocols will be limited.
The implementation of EtherChannels on redundant links will exceed the bandwidth.
The implementation of scalability that is required during future growth will be limited.

33. Which three issues can cause devices to become disconnected across a trunk link? (Choose three.)
native VLAN mismatch
unassigned management VLAN
Layer 2 interface mode incompatibilities
missing default VLAN
mismatched trunk encapsulations
PAgP not enabled

34.
Refer to the exhibit. What additional configuration is required in order for users in VLAN 10 to communicate with the users in VLAN 20?
Configure interface Fa0/1 on SW1 as a trunk.
Remove the subinterfaces on R1 and configure interface Fa0/0 as a trunk.
Configure interfaces Fa0/2 and Fa0/3 on SW1 as trunk links.
Configure VLAN 100 as a data VLAN and VLAN 1 as the native VLAN.

35.
Refer to the exhibit. Given that interface Fa3/42 is an active trunk port, what two conclusions can be made based on the displayed output? (Choose two.)
Root guard is not enabled on interface Fa3/42.
Interface Fa3/42 will not pass data traffic if it detects that it is part of a spanning-tree loop caused by unidirectional link failure.
UDLD cannot be configured on interface Fa3/42.
If a spanning-tree loop is detected on VLAN 1, data traffic will be blocked for all VLANs on interface Fa3/42.
The difference in BPDUs sent and received indicates a loop caused by unidirectional link failure has been detected.

36. Which architecture enables enterprises to offer important network services, such as security, new communication services, and improved application performance to every office, regardless of its size or proximity to headquarters?
Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture
Cisco Enterprise Data Center Architecture
Cisco Enterprise Branch Architecture
Cisco Enterprise Teleworker Architecture

37. Which three parameters must be configured in order to enable SSH? (Choose three.)
retries
hostname
timeouts
domain name
keys
routing protocol

38. The TCAM defines three different match options that correlate to which three specific match regions? (Choose three.)
bifurcated match
longest match
second match
exact match
first match
third match

39. Which two types of attacks can be mitigated by port security? (Choose two.)
dictionary
denial of service (DoS)
replay
MAC-address flooding
password

40. What is a characteristic of a standalone WLAN solution?
has no centralized monitoring
has no centralized management
has no centralized operational control
has no centralized access authentication

41.
Refer to the exhibit. What configuration will be required on the DSW switch in order to perform inter-VLAN routing for all VLANs that are configured on the access switches?
Configure the routing protocol.
Configure SVI for each VLAN in the network.
Configure the links between DSW and the access switches as access links.
Configure as routed ports the DSW interfaces that face the access switches.

42. How do FlexLink and STP operate together?
If an active STP port is blocked, the active FlexLink port will take over.
Both the active STP port and active FlexLink port can forward traffic simultaneously.
Both the active STP port and active FlexLink port can forward traffic simultaneously but only for different VLANs.
STP can be active in the distribution layer, but is unaware of any FlexLink updates in the access layer.

43.
Refer to the exhibit. What two effects will occur when a fourth distribution module is included in the campus enterprise network that is depicted in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
The inclusion of the fourth module will increase the routing complexity.
It will limit the traffic flow in the network.
It will provide scalability for future growth.
It will impact the security of the traffic between the distribution switches.
It will increase the number of additional links that are required to provide redundant connectivity.

44.
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the way HSRP is configured?
Switch DLS1 is the standby router for VLANs 1,10, and 20.
Switch DLS2 is the standby router for VLANs 30 and 40.
Issuing the show standby command on switch DSL1 will reveal that the HSRP state for VLAN 10 is standby.
Issuing the show standby command on switch DSL2 will reveal that the HSRP state for VLAN 30 is standby.
By setting different priorities on different VLANs, a type of load balancing is occurring.
If the Ethernet cables between switch DLS2 and switch ALS1 were severed, Payroll Host would not be able to reach SQL Server.

45. When should a proactive management be performed within the stages of the Cisco Lifecycle Services?
prepare phase
plan phase
design phase
implement phase
operate phase
optimize phase

46.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the displayed configuration on switches ASW1 and ASW2?
BPDU guard puts an interface that is configured for STP PortFast in the err-disable state upon receipt of a BPDU.
BPDU guard overrides the PortFast configuration and reverts to the default spanning tree configuration on the access ports.
BPDU guard forces the uplink ports on ASW1 and ASW2 to become designated ports to prevent DSW2 from becoming a root switch.
BPDU guard places the uplink ports on a ASW1 and ASW2 into the STP loop-inconsistent blocking state when the ports stop receiving BPDUs.

47. Which multilayer switching forwarding method does Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) use?
route caching
process switching
silicon switching
topology-based switching

48.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to verify the proper operations of the packet load sharing between a group of redundant routers that are configured with GLBP. On the basis of the provided output, which router is the Active Virtual Forwarder (AVF) for Host2?
the router with an IP address of 10.1.1.1
the router with an IP address of 10.1.1.2
the router with the virtual IP address of 10.1.1.254
the router with the IP address 10.1.1.1 and the router with the IP address 10.1.1.2

49. What is required for SLA to capture one-way delays?
two IP SLA responders
a Round Trip Timer value
Network Time Protocol (NTP)
IP SLA source using TCP port 2020

50. What is the most common method of configuring inter-VLAN routing on a Layer 3 switch?
Configure the switch physical interface so that the router will have an interface in each VLAN.
For each VLAN, configure trunking between the router and the switch.
Configure a routing protocol on the Layer 3 switch to include each interface.
Configure switch virtual interfaces. The result is that the router will have a virtual interface in each VLAN.

51. What is the purpose of the debug condition standby vlan vlan-id group-number command in troubleshooting HSRP?
redirect the debug standby output for the referenced HSRP group to a syslog server on the specified VLAN
block the debug standby output for the referenced VLAN and HSRP group
display debug standby output only for HSRP traffic that is received by HSRP peers in the specified VLAN and group
display debug standby output only for HSRP traffic that is sent to HSRP peers in the specified VLAN and group
limit the output of the debug standby command to the specific VLAN interface and HSRP group

52. What device can be used to support Power over Ethernet (PoE) to power the access points?
a host computer
an IP phone
an Ethernet switch
a lightweight access point

53. Which three statements about RSTP edge ports are true? (Choose three.)
Edge ports function similarly to UplinkFast ports.
Edge ports should never connect to another switch.
If an edge port receives a BPDU, it becomes a normal spanning-tree port.
Edge ports immediately transition to learning mode and then forwarding mode when enabled.
Edge ports never generate topology change notifications (TCNs) when the port transitions to a disabled or enabled status.
Edge ports can have another switch connected to them as long as the link is operating in full duplex.

54. What are two benefits of local VLANs in the Enterprise Campus Network? (Choose two.)
wide coverage because of the fact that a VLAN can be geographically dispersed throughout the network
ease of management because local VLANs are typically confined to the building access submodule
high availability because redundant paths exist at all infrastructure levels
broad expansion domain because the number of devices on each VLAN can easily be added to
IP address conservation because address blocks can be allocated to VLANs

55. Which phase of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach includes building a network according to the design and verifying that it performs according to specifications?
prepare phase
plan phase
design phase
implement phase
operate phase
optimize phase

56.
Refer to the exhibit. The link between switch SW1 and SW2 is manually configured as full duplex on SW2 and with half duplex on SW1. How could this impact the STP operations?
Switch SW2 can move port Fa0/3 into a forwarding state, thereby creating a Layer 2 loop.
Switch SW1 shuts down the Fa0/1 port and thus reinforces a new spanning-tree calculation.
Switch SW2 negotiates the Fa0/1 port on SW1 to be in full-duplex mode which keeps SW1 as the root bridge for the spanning tree.
Switch SW1 negotiates the Fa0/2 port on SW2 to be in half-duplex mode and thus forces SW2 to become the root bridge for the spanning tree.

57. What three features are provided by IEEE 802.1Q trunking? (Choose three.)
security
resilience
QoS support
multivendor support
relatively small frame overhead
multicast support

58. How many physical links can comprise a single PAgP EtherChannel on a Catalyst 3560 switch? (Choose three.)
2
5
8
10
12
13
16

59. What is the most fundamental form of high availability when using Catalyst modular switches?
Spanning Tree Protocol
routing protocol
First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP)
Supervisor Engine redundancy
redundant switching modules

60. What is the recommended maximum one-way latency when implementing video over IP for real-time video applications?
Latency is not a factor for a smooth video over IP implementation.
Latency should be defined for voice traffic only (not for video).
The recommended maximum one-way latency should not be more than 150 ms.
When mixed video and voice packets are included in the video stream, the latency should be 300 ms.

Read more ...