DHomesb Chapter 5 CCNA Discovery 1 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – DHomesb Chapter 5 – CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. How large are IPv4 addresses?
8 bits
16 bits
32 bits
64 bits
128 bits

2. Refer to the graphic. A user at the workstation cannot connect to the server. All cables have been tested and are working and all devices have IP addressing. However, the user cannot ping the server. What is causing the problem?
The router interface does not have a default gateway.
The switch does not have an IP address and default gateway.
The workstation and server are on different logical networks.
The workstation does not know the MAC address of the switch.

3. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
first two octets
third and fourth octets
network portion
host portion
only the fourth octet

4. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
172.32.65.0
172.32.65.32
172.32.0.0
172.32.32.0

5. Which default subnet mask provides the most host bits?
255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.252

6. How many bits are available for Class B host IP addresses using a default subnet mask?
4
8
16
24

7. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
254
255
256
510
511
512

8. Assuming a default mask, which portion of the IP address 175.124.35.4 represents the host?
175.124
35.4
.4
124.35.4
175.124.35

9. Which of the following are private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
10.1.1.1
172.32.5.2
192.167.10.10
172.16.4.4
192.168.5.5
224.6.6.6

10. What destination IP address is used in a unicast packet?
a specific host
a group of host
the default gateway
the network broadcast address

11. What is the destination MAC address in a multicast Ethernet frame?
the MAC address of the sending host
the MAC address of the destination hos
an address that begins with 01-00-5E in hexadecimal
a 48-bit hexadecimal address expressed as FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

12. Yvonne is talking to her friend on the phone. What type of message is this?
broadcast
simulcast
multicast
unicast

13. What information must be included within a unicast message for it to be delivered on an Ethernet network?
MAC and IP addresses for the default router
IP address and subnet mask of the default gateway
MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a destination grou
MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a specific destination host

14. A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?
The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.
The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.
The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.

15. Which type of server dynamically assigns an IP address to a host?
ARP
DHCP
DNS
RARP

16. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
Only the DHCP server receives the message.

17. Refer to the graphic. A host connects to a Linksys integrated router that is also a DHCP server and receives an IP address from it. Which address does the host need to access the ISP and the Internet?
IP address of the destination host
public gateway IP address of the ISP
external IP address of the integrated router that connects to the ISP
internal IP address of the integrated router that connects to the local network

18. Which statement is true concerning private IP addresses?
ensures that two networks separated by the Internet use unique IP network numbers
allows internal hosts to communicate with servers across the Internet
solves the issue of a finite number of available public IP addresses
allows for ISPs to be able to quickly determine network location

19. What is one of the purposes of NAT?
filters network traffic based on IP address ranges
prevents external users from detecting the IP addresses used on a network
inspects traffic that might be harmful or used in an attack against the network
translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names

20. Which two statements describe packets that are sent through a Linksys integrated router using NAT? (Choose two.)
Packets that are sent to any destination need to be translated.
Packets that are sent to hosts on the same network need to be translated.
Packets that are sent to a destination outside the local network need to be translated.
Packets that are sent to a destination outside a local network do not need to be translated.
Packets that are sent between hosts on the same local network do not need to be translated.

21. Refer to the graphic. NAT and DHCP are installed on the Linksys integrated router. Which IP address is most likely to be assigned to the local computer, Host1?
10.0.0.17
128.107.1.2
192.135.250.0
209.165.201.1

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DHomesb Chapter 6 CCNA Discovery 1 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – DHomesb Chapter 6 – CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. A user types www.cisco.com into a web browser address textbox. What does www.cisco.com represent?
the IP address of a web server
a physical network address
the closest router interface to the source
the source IP address in the data transmission

2. What type of server would use IMAP?
DNS
DHCP
e-mail
FTP
Telnet
web

3. Which type of server would most likely be used first by a network client in a corporate environment?
DNS
DHCP
e-mail
FTP
Telnet
web

4. Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?
TCP
SMTP
UDP
SNMP

5. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
UDP
FTP
IP
SMTP
TCP

6. Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
Application
Physical
Internet
Network Access
Presentation

7. You are creating a network-based video game. What influences your decision about which transport protocol to use for the application?
UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.
TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video delivery.
Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and guaranteed delivery.
Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so no transport protocol should be used.

8. Whenever e-mail clients send letters, what device is used to translate the domain names into their associated IP addresses?
Uniform Resource Locator
Network redirector server
SNMP server
DNS server

9. Which application is most likely used to translate www.cisco.com to 198.133.219.25?
DHCP
DNS
FTP
HTTP
POP
SMTP

10. Refer to the graphic. Which protocol is used to access this website?
IM
FTP
HTTP
SNMP
VoIP

11. Which port number is used by SMTP?
20
21
25
26
110

12. Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
FTP
HTTP
TFTP
SMTP
POP
SNMP

13. What client software enables logged in users to communicate with other logged in users in real time?
blog
e-mail
web mail
instant messaging

14. An Internet server is running both FTP and HTTP services. How does the server know which of these applications should handle an incoming segment?
The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.
The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.
The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.
The source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.

15. What term is used to describe how TCP/IP protocols are layered and interact to format, address, and transmit information across a network?
protocol hierarchy
protocol modeling
protocol stack
protocol layering

16. What three items are contained in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
error-checking information

17. What information is contained in an IP header?
source and destination IP addresses
source and destination MAC addresses
only destination IP and MAC addresses
both source and destination IP and MAC addresses

18. Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?
4
2
1
3

19. A device receives an Ethernet frame and recognizes the MAC address as its own. What does the device do to the message to get to the encapsulated data?
removes the IP header
removes the TCP header
passes data to the application layer
removes the Ethernet header and trailer

20. A client has decoded a frame and started the de-encapsulation process. In which order does the de-encapsulation process occur?
1) remove IP header
2) remove Ethernet header and trailer
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

1) add TCP header to data
2) add an IP header
3) add frame header and trailer
4) encode the frame into bits

1) remove Ethernet header and trailer
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

1) add TCP header to data
2) add Ethernet header and trailer
3) add an IP header
4) encode the frame into bits

21. What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
It breaks network communications into larger parts.
It increases complexity.
It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.

22. What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI reference model, starting at the lowest layer and working up the model?
data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session, application
physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application
physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session, application
physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical

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DHomesb Chapter 7 CCNA Discovery 1 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – DHomesb Chapter 7 – CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. Why is IEEE 802.11 wireless technology able to transmit further distances than Bluetooth technology?
transmits at much lower frequencies
has higher power output
transmits at much higher frequencies
uses better encryption methods

2. What are three advantages of wireless over wired technology? (Choose three.)
more secure
longer range
anytime, anywhere connectivity
easy and inexpensive to install
ease of using licensed air space
ease of adding additional devices

3. What are two benefits of wireless networking over wired networking? (Choose two.)
speed
security
mobility
reduced installation time
allows users to share more resources
not susceptible to interference from other devices

4. A technician has been asked to provide wireless connectivity to the wired Ethernet network of a building. Which three factors affect the number of access points needed? (Choose three.)
the size of the building
the number of solid interior walls in the building
the presence of microwave ovens in several offices
the encryption method used on the wireless network
the use of both Windows and Appletalk operating systems
the use of shortwave or infrared on the AP

5. Why is security so important in wireless networks?
Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

6. What does the Wi-Fi logo indicate about a wireless device?
IEEE has approved the device.
The device is interoperable with all other wireless standards.
The device is interoperable with other devices of the same standard that also display the Wi-Fi logo.
The device is backwards compatible with all previous wireless standards.

7. Which statement is true concerning wireless bridges?
connects two networks with a wireless link
stationary device that connects to a wireless LAN
allows wireless clients to connect to a wired network
increases the strength of a wireless signal

8. Which WLAN component is commonly referred to as an STA?
cell
antenna
access point
wireless bridge
wireless client

9. Which statement is true concerning an ad-hoc wireless network?
created by connecting wireless clients in a peer-to-peer network
created by connecting wireless clients to a single, centralized AP
created by connecting multiple wireless basic service sets through a distribution system
created by connecting wireless clients to a wired network using an ISR

10. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu option of a Linksys integrated router, what does the Network Mode option Mixed mean?
The router supports encryption and authentication.
The router supports both wired and wireless connections.
The router supports 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices.
The router supports connectivity through infrared and radio frequencies.

11. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu of a Linksys integrated router, what configuration option allows the presence of the access point to be known to nearby clients?
Network Mode
Network Name (SSID)
Radio Band
Wide Channel
Standard Channel
SSID Broadcast

12. Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)
tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs
consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive
responsible for determining the signal strength
all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID
used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network

13. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
Wardriving enhances security of wireless networks.
With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.
Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.
An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.

14. What type of authentication does an access point use by default?
Open
PSK
WEP
EAP

15. Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled on an access point?
requires no authentication
uses a 64-bit encryption algorithm
requires the use of an authentication server
requires a mutually agreed upon password

16. What are two authentication methods that an access point could use? (Choose two.)
WEP
WPA
EAP
ASCII
pre-shared keys

17. What is the difference between using open authentication and pre-shared keys?
Open authentication requires a password. Pre-shared keys do not require a password.
Open authentication is used with wireless networks. Pre-shared keys are used with wired networks.
Pre-shared keys require an encrypted secret word. Open authentication does not require a secret word.
Pre-shared keys require a MAC address programmed into the access point. Open authentication does not require this programming.

18. What term describes the encoding of wireless data to prevent intercepted data from being read by a hacker?
address filtering
authentication
broadcasting
encryption
passphrase encoding

19. What access-point feature allows a network administrator to define what type of data can enter the wireless network?
encryption
hacking block
traffic filtering
MAC address filtering
authentication

20. What are the two WEP key lengths? (Choose two.)
8 bit
16 bit
32 bit
64 bit
128 bit

21. Complete the following sentence: WEP is used to ______ , and EAP is used to _____ wireless networks.
encrypt; authenticate users on
filter traffic; select the operating frequency for
identify the wireless network; compress data on
create the smallest wireless network; limit the number of users on

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DHomesb Chapter 2 CCNA Discovery 1 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – DHomesb Chapter 2 – CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. An operating system is severely damaged. All data on the partition needs to be deleted, and all application software must be reinstalled. Which installation method should be used to correct the problem?
clean install
upgrade
multi-boot
virtualization

2. Which two statements should be included in a pre-installation checklist when upgrading an operating system? (Choose two.)
Verify that the hardware resources have multiple partitions.
Verify that the hardware resources meet or exceed the published minimum requirements.
Complete a full backup of all important files and data.
Overwrite any data currently contained on the drive to remove all contents.
Verify that the hardware resources are certified to work with the existing operating system prior to upgrading.

3. Which three pieces of information must be specified on a computer to allow that computer to send and receive information across networks? (Choose three.)
closest server
operating system
IP addrese
subnet mask
default gateway
network card driver

4. Which two items must be unique to each computer and cannot be duplicated on a network? (Choose two.)
partition
file system
computer name
IP address
operating system

5. Which method of interacting with an operating system involves typing commands at a command prompt?
CLI
GUI
redirector
kernel translator

6. What are three characteristics of an operating system that is released under the GPL (GNU Public License)? (Choose three.)
full access to source code
software often available free
structured development cycle
can be expensive to purchase
limits what end-user can do with code
support normally user-based and often free

7. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

8. Which two statements are true about drive partitions? (Choose two.)
Partitions are necessary in multi-boot installations.
A hard drive can be divided into an operating system partition and a data partition.
User data is never overwritten when a drive is partitioned.
A disk partition is a defined section of an operating system.
Each partition requires a different file system type

9. What occurs when computers are configured to receive their network configurations dynamically?
Each computer receives a permanent IP address.
A network administrator enters information on each computer.
Each computer requests configuration information from a server.
An NIC automatically provides configuration information to the computer and stores that configuration information.

10. What are two ways that a user can interact with an operating system shell? (Choose two.)
CLI
OS
GUI
NIC
kernel

11. Which three resource specifications are given by the manufacturer to ensure that an operating system performs as designed? (Choose three.)
required hard disk space
type of accelerated graphics card
recommended amount of RAM
printer requirements
processor type and speed
type of keyboard

12. The Lesson TaskMaster application from ChalkBoard has a problem. Every time the software is installed and loaded on a Windows XP-based Dell computer, and the moment something is typed followed by a tab, two tabs are inserted instead of one. What would be the best solution to this problem?
Uninstall and then reinstall Lesson TaskMaster.
Download, install, and apply a patch from Dell.
Download, install, and apply a patch from Microsoft.
Download, install, and apply a patch from ChalkBoard.

13. What Explorer menu option is used to determine the Windows XP version installed on a computer?
Edit
Help
View
Tools
Favorites

14. Which Windows XP Automatic Update option allows you to select the time when a Windows update is executed?
Automatic (recommended).
Install updates from the Windows Update web site.
Notify me but don’t automatically download or install them.
Download updates for me, but let me choose when to install them.

15. What two items are available from the About Windows option through the Windows Explorer Help menu? (Choose two.)
a list of troubleshooting links
the end-user license agreement
a list of installed hardware devices
the date of the last Windows update
the operating system version number
a list of terms with links to definitions

16. Which operating system patch installation method is used when a user is notified of a security update for remotely accessing a computer, but wishes not to install this patch?
manual
automatic
semi-automatic
prompt for permission

17. Which statement is true about installing an operating system on computers in a networked environment?
The computer name must be unique for all computers on the same network.
The operating system must be the same on all computers on the same network.
The amount of installed RAM must be the same on all computers on the same network.
The operating system must have the latest patch applied during the installation or it will not participate in the network.

18. Windows XP has a known problem with specific Intel processors. What is the best course of action to take in this situation?
Power off the computer and reinstall the CPU.
Delete Windows XP and perform a clean install.
Reinstall Windows XP to the same hard drive partition.
Reinstall Windows XP to a different hard drive partition.
Download and install the Windows patch that fixes this problem.
Replace the Intel processor with one that is approved by Microsoft.

19. Which Windows file system is more likely to be used in a business environment?
ext2
ext3
NTFS
FAT16
FAT32

20. You must select an operating system for the faculty at a college. All of the questions below would be logical for you to ask except one. Determine the illogical question.
How much does the operating system cost and does the college have funding?
Is the technical support staff at the college able to support the operating systems being considered?
Do the operating systems being considered have the ability to support the ports available on the faculty computers?
What types of applications do the faculty use and are they compatible with the operating systems being considered?

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DHomesb Chapter 3 CCNA Discovery 1 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – DHomesb Chapter 3 – CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. Which term is used to describe the process of placing one message format into another format so that the message can be delivered across the appropriate medium?
flow control
encapsulation
encoding
multicasting
access method

2. Refer to the graphic. Five PCs are connected through a hub. If host H1 wants to reply to a message from host H2, which statement is true?
H1 sends a unicast message to H2, but the hub forwards it to all devices.
H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.
H1 sends a broadcast message to H2, and the hub forwards it to all devices.
H1 sends a multicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.

3. Which two statements concerning networking standards are true? (Choose two.)
adds complexity to networks
encourages vendors to create proprietary protocols
provides consistent interconnections across networks
ensures that communications work best in a single-vendor environment
simplifies new product development

4. What does the 100 mean when referencing the 100BASE-T Ethernet standard?
type of cable used
type of data transmission
speed of transmission
type of connector required
maximum length of cable allowed

5. Which address does an NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
source Ethernet address

6. Which type of address is used in an Ethernet frame header?
logical addresses only
IP addresses only
MAC addresses only
broadcast addresses only

7. What is the function of the FCS field in an Ethernet frame?
detects transmission errors
provides timing for transmission
contains the start of frame delimiter
indicates which protocol will receive the frame

8. What is the purpose of logical addresses in an IP network?
They identify a specific NIC on a host device.
They are used to determine which host device accepts the frame.
They provide vendor-specific information about the host.
They are used to determine the network that the host is located on.
They are used by switches to make forwarding decisions.

9. Which device accepts a message on one port and always forwards the message to all other ports?
modem
switch
router
hub

10. Which two networking devices are used to connect hosts to the access layer? (Choose two.)
router
hub
switch
server
computer

11. Host A needs to learn the MAC address of Host B, which is on the same LAN segment. A message has been sent to all the hosts on the segment asking for the MAC address of Host B. Host B responds with its MAC address and all other hosts disregard the request. What protocol was used in this scenario?
ARP
DHCP
DNS
WINS

12. A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is currently not in the MAC table. What action does the switch perform?
It drops the frame.
It sends out an ARP request looking for the MAC address.
It floods the frame out of all active ports, except the origination port.
It returns the frame to the sender.

13. What is a benefit of having a router within the distribution layer?
prevents collisions on a local network
keeps broadcasts contained within a local network
controls which hosts have access to the network
controls host-to-host traffic within a single local network

14. Refer to the graphic. What does the router do after it determines that a data packet from Network 1 should be forwarded to Network 2?
It sends the data packet as it was received.
It reassembles the frame with different MAC addresses than the original frame.
It reassembles the data packet with different IP addresses than the original data packet.
It reassembles both the packet and the frame with different destination IP and MAC addresses.

15. Which table does a router use to make decisions on where a data packet is to be sent?
ARP table
routing table
network table
forwarding table

16. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.

17. What device is typically used as the default gateway for a computer?
a server hosted by the ISP
the router interface closest to the computer
a server managed by a central IT department
the switch interface that connects to the computer

18. If a router receives a packet that it does not know how to forward, what type of route must be configured on the router to prevent the router from dropping it?
dynamic route
default route
destination route
default destination

19. Which two items are included in a network logical map? (Choose two.)
naming scheme
IP addressing scheme
length of cable runs
physical location of networking devices
specific layout of interconnections between networking devices and hosts

20. An integrated router can normally perform the functions of which two other network devices? (Choose two.)
NIC
switch
e-mail server
application server
wireless access point

21. What is a reason for disabling simple file sharing?
It enables the user to map a remote resource with a local drive.
It enables the user to share all files with all users and groups.
It enables the user to share printers.
It enables the user to set more specific security access levels.

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DHomesb Chapter 4 CCNA Discovery 1 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – DHomesb Chapter 4 – CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. Which definition describes the term Internet?
a group of PCs connected together on a LAN
a group of PCs connected together by an ISP
a network of networks that connects countries around the world
a worldwide collection of networks controlled by a single organization

2. What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?
between a client and a host
between two local networks
between a computer and a switch
between an ISP and a home-based LAN

3. What is the term for the group of high-speed data links that interconnect ISPs?
Internet LAN
ISP backbone
Internet gateways
Internet providers
Internet backbone

4. Which device can act as a router, switch, and wireless access point in one package?
hub
bridge
modem
repeater
ISR

5. What are three characteristics of business class ISP service? (Choose three.)
fast connections
extra web space
free Windows upgrade
cheapest cost available to all users
additional e-mail accounts
replacement hardware at no cost

6. What is a major characteristic of asymmetric Internet service?
Download speeds and upload speeds are equal.
Download speeds are slower than upload speeds.
Upload speeds and download speeds are different.
Upload speeds and download speeds are irrelevant.

7. Which three elements are required to successfully connect to the Internet? (Choose three.)
an IP address
file sharing enabled
a network connection
server services enabled
access to an Internet service provider
an address obtained directly from the RIR

8. What term describes each router through which a packet travels when moving between source and destination networks?
NOC
ISP
hop
segment

9. What does the tracert command test?
NIC functionality
the ISP bandwidth
the network path to a destination
the destination application functionality

10. What type of end-user connectivity requires that an ISP have a DSLAM device in their network?
analog technology
cable modem technology
digital subscriber line technology
wireless technology

11. Why would an ISP require a CMTS device on their network?
to connect end users using cable technology
to connect end users using analog technology
to connect end users using wireless technology
to connect end users using digital subscriber line technology

12. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
STP
UTP
coax
fiber

13. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
STP
UTP
coax
fiber

14. Which two places are most appropriate to use UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
between buildings
in a home office network
where EMI is an issue
in a cable TV network
inside a school building
in a manufacturing environment with hundreds of electrical devices

15. What does adherence to cabling standards ensure?
data security
no loss of signal
no electromagnetic interference
reliable data communications

16. Refer to the graphic. What type of cable is shown?
crossover
eight coax channels
multimode fiber
single-mode fiber
straight-through

17. What connector is used to terminate Ethernet unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling?
ST
BNC
RJ-11
RJ-45

18. Which two characteristics describe copper patch panels? (Choose two.)
uses RJ-11 jacks
uses RJ-45 jacks
supports only data transmissions
allows quick rearrangements of network connections
forwards transmissions based on MAC addresses

19. What are two advantages of cable management? (Choose two.)
requires no preplanning
aids in isolation of cabling problems
protects cables from physical damage
provides compliance with future standards
provides a short-term solution for cable installation

20. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
installing cables in conduit
having improper termination
losing light over long distances
installing low quality cable shielding
using low quality cables or connectors

21. What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)
pinouts
cable lengths
connector color
connector types
cost per meter (foot)
tensile strength of plastic insulator.

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DHomesb Chapter 1 CCNA Discovery 1 4.0 2012 100% Take Assessment – DHomesb Chapter 1 – CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0) – Answers – 2011 – 2012

1. Which computer component is considered the nerve center of the computer system and is responsible for processing all of the data within the machine ?
RAM
CPU
video card
sound card
operating system

2. What are two advantages of purchasing a preassembled computer ? (Choose two.)
usually a lower cost
exact components may be specified
extended waiting period for assembly
adequate for performing most general applications
suited for customers with special needs

3. A user plans to run multiple applications simultaneously on a computer. Which computer component is essential to accomplish this ?
RAM
NIC
video card
sound card
storage device

4. Which adapter card enables a computer system to exchange information with other systems on a local network ?
modem card
controller card
video card
sound card
network interface card

5. What is the main storage drive used by servers, desktops, and laptops ?
tape drive
hard drive
optical drive (DVD)
floppy disk drive

6. Which component is designed to remove high-voltage spikes and surges from a power line so that they do not damage a computer system ?
CPU
surge suppressor
motherboard
hard drive

7. What are two examples of output peripheral devices ? (Choose two.)
printer
speakers
flash drive
external DVD
external modem

8. What two functions does a UPS provide that a surge protector does not ? (Choose two.)
protects the computer from voltage surges
provides backup power from an internal battery
protects the computer from sudden voltage spikes
gives the user time to phone the electrical company
gives the user time to safely shut down the computer if the power fails
provides backup power through a generator provided by the wall outlet

9. What is a word processor ?
It is a physical computer component.
It is a program designed to perform a specific function.
It is a program that controls the computer resources.
It is a functional part of an operating system.

10. What is the purpose of the ASCII code ?
translates bits into bytes
interprets graphics digitally
translates digital computer language into binary language
represents letters, characters, and numbers with bits

11. Why do servers often contain duplicate or redundant parts ?
Servers require more power and thus require more components.
Servers should be accessible at all times.
Servers can be designed as standalone towers or rack mounted.
Servers are required by networking standards to have duplicate parts.

12. What are two benefits of hooking up a laptop to a docking station ? (Choose two.)
Mobility is increased.
An external monitor can be used.
Alternate connectivity options may be available.
The keyboard can be changed to a QWERTY-style keyboard.
More wireless security options are available.

13. Applications can be grouped into general use software or industry specific software. What are two examples of industry specific software ? (Choose two.)
CAD
presentation
spreadsheet
word processing
medical practice management
contacts/scheduling management

14. Which three terms describe different types of computers ? (Choose three.)
operating system
network
laptop
desktop
Windows
mainframe

15. How is a server different from a workstation computer ?
The server works as a standalone computer.
The server provides services to clients.
The workstation has fewer applications installed.
The workstation has more users who attach to it.

16. How many values are possible using a single binary digit ?
1
2
4
8
9
16

17. What measurement is commonly associated with computer processing speed ?
bits
pixels
hertz
bytes

18. What can be used to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD) ?
dry and non humid conditions
carpeted floor
grounding strap
uncluttered work space

19. If a peripheral device is not functioning, what are three things you should do to solve the problem ? (Choose three.)
Use the testing functionality on the peripheral itself, if available.
Verify that all cables are connected properly.
Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected to the peripheral.
Ensure that the peripheral is powered on.
Disconnect the peripheral and verify that the computer is operating normally.
Reload the computer operating system.

20. Which two steps should be performed when installing a peripheral device ? (Choose two.)
Download and install the most current driver.
Connect the peripheral using any cable and any available port on the computer.
Connect the peripheral using an appropriate cable or wireless connection.
Test the peripheral on another machine before installing it on the one where it will be used.
Check the computer documentation to see if the peripheral vendor is compatible with the PC vendor.

21. In newer operating systems, how are system resources assigned by default when components are installed ?
manually assigned by the operating system
manually assigned by the administrator
statically assigned by the component to a preset resource
dynamically assigned between the component and the operating system

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